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Isaiah 61:2 To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD,
Which Jesus quotes here in Luke 4:19
Then he closed the book (of Isaiah) in Luke 4:20 because that day this was fulfilled
As we know that last verse is split...
The second half of Isaiah 61:2 is to proclaim.... the day of vengeance of our God; to comfort all that mourn;
Which part of vengeance is proclaimed here
Luk 21:22 For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled.
Jesus only had to proclaim those two times (the acceptable year in Luke 4:20 and day of vengeance as he declared them in Luke 21:22) Jesus fulfilled proclaiming them as Isaiah said he would, the proclamation itself in Luke 21 was not fulfilled, you dont even need the Spirit of God to see that.
Which Jesus quotes here in Luke 4:19
Then he closed the book (of Isaiah) in Luke 4:20 because that day this was fulfilled
As we know that last verse is split...
The second half of Isaiah 61:2 is to proclaim.... the day of vengeance of our God; to comfort all that mourn;
Which part of vengeance is proclaimed here
Luk 21:22 For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled.
Jesus only had to proclaim those two times (the acceptable year in Luke 4:20 and day of vengeance as he declared them in Luke 21:22) Jesus fulfilled proclaiming them as Isaiah said he would, the proclamation itself in Luke 21 was not fulfilled, you dont even need the Spirit of God to see that.
You cannot hear a single word,
Answer this for yourself.
Jesus Christ, Isaiah said he would declare the acceptable year of the Lord (where did he do that in the gospel)?
Isaiah said he would declare the day of vengeance of our God, where again did Jesus do that?
Give us the scriptures where "acceptable year" and days "of vengeance are that Isaiah prophesied of.
You dont believe Jesus fulfilled speaking of them I take it
Answer this for yourself.
Jesus Christ, Isaiah said he would declare the acceptable year of the Lord (where did he do that in the gospel)?
Isaiah said he would declare the day of vengeance of our God, where again did Jesus do that?
Give us the scriptures where "acceptable year" and days "of vengeance are that Isaiah prophesied of.
You dont believe Jesus fulfilled speaking of them I take it
What got this started had nothing to do with that idea of His 'proclaiming' those Isaiah verses. It had everything to do with you saying they BOTH were fulfilled by Jesus, which is a different statement altogether.
So has that "days of vengeance" of Luke 21:22 (or Isaiah 61:2 if you prefer), fulfilled already?
So has that "days of vengeance" of Luke 21:22 (or Isaiah 61:2 if you prefer), fulfilled already?
I keep saying Jesus fulfills the "proclaiming" part of it, It is Jesus who said the first one in Luke 4 was fulfilled in their ears, and it is Jesus also who said of those days (the days of vengeance) mentioned in Luke 21 were the days that all things written MAY BE FULFILLED and you keep coming after me over they are NOT fulfilled when even Jesus isnt saying in the text itself (you quote at me) that they are.
You do this all the time?
You are embarrassing yourself, its like calling me a liar that Jesus fulfilled Isaiahs proclamations and then calling me a liar again over Jesus own words I quoted as if I didnt notice what was written concerning their specific fulfilments (and in Like 4 right there) and in Luke 21 it cannot be more obvious those things were not fulfilled, a first grader can see that.
Is there some kind of point to this?
You do this all the time?
You are embarrassing yourself, its like calling me a liar that Jesus fulfilled Isaiahs proclamations and then calling me a liar again over Jesus own words I quoted as if I didnt notice what was written concerning their specific fulfilments (and in Like 4 right there) and in Luke 21 it cannot be more obvious those things were not fulfilled, a first grader can see that.
Is there some kind of point to this?
No problem: here:
Don't you notice you said "both of the proclamations were fulfilled in Jesus" in that?
The first Isaiah 61 proclaiming was not just about Him saying that at His first coming. It was about Him saying that first part was then "fulfilled".
Luke 4:21
21 And He began to say unto them, This day is this scripture fulfilled in your ears.
KJV
Don't you notice you said "both of the proclamations were fulfilled in Jesus" in that?
The first Isaiah 61 proclaiming was not just about Him saying that at His first coming. It was about Him saying that first part was then "fulfilled".
Luke 4:21
21 And He began to say unto them, This day is this scripture fulfilled in your ears.
KJV
It's a simple matter, either you believe the "days of vengeance" is already fulfilled, or you don't. You can't just make that about His proclaiming it, because what He said in Luke 4 about the first part was then fulfilled at His first coming, but the second part in Luke 21:22 wasn't, and still has yet to be fulfilled. This difference is very simple, so I don't know why you would want to avoid my question if you believe that Luke 21:22 event was actually fulfilled then or not.
Yes, lets look at the second time I showed this one and see the whole thing which my first post (under prove all's post) was to
JESUS BEING WHERE FOR WHICH ONE OF THOSE and I qualified it see the first line you conveniently leave out
Only someone looking for argument would do what you are doing
But I love this part of it too sometimes because the longer it goes the more visible it becomes
JESUS BEING WHERE FOR WHICH ONE OF THOSE and I qualified it see the first line you conveniently leave out
Only someone looking for argument would do what you are doing
But I love this part of it too sometimes because the longer it goes the more visible it becomes
Yes he does, and shamefully so. 
For those who don't yet know what this is about, I'm dealing with those on men's doctrines of Preterism here, which many of them actually believe those "days of vengeance" of Luke 21:22 have already... been fulfilled by our Lord Jesus, back in His Apostle's days. But their idea of that already being past would mean the "day of the Lord" event of God pouring out His cup of wrath upon the wicked was already past history. That's what this little debate is actually about.
I have bad eyes, but sometimes when you make things even bigger and highlight the obvious only
He did both, these are just split as to where he did so.
Jesus stops in Luke, but as we know Isaiah continues...
Isaiah 61:2 To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD, and the day of vengeance of our God;to comfort all that mourn;
That is where Jesus closes" the book" of Isaiah cutting that saying short in Luke 4:21 that "this saying was fulfilled in their ears" but he continues the other proclamation of Isaiah 61:2 by picking it up in Luke 21:22 here
Luke 21:22For these be the days of vengeance, that all things*** which are written may be fulfilled***.
At least it shows where both of the proclamation were fulfilled in Jesus.
He did both, these are just split as to where he did so.
Jesus stops in Luke, but as we know Isaiah continues...
Isaiah 61:2 To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD, and the day of vengeance of our God;to comfort all that mourn;
That is where Jesus closes" the book" of Isaiah cutting that saying short in Luke 4:21 that "this saying was fulfilled in their ears" but he continues the other proclamation of Isaiah 61:2 by picking it up in Luke 21:22 here
Luke 21:22For these be the days of vengeance, that all things*** which are written may be fulfilled***.
At least it shows where both of the proclamation were fulfilled in Jesus.
Yes he does, and shamefully so.
I gotta start filling up ignore, three pages trying to state I am confirming Isaiahs words in Jesus and now I am being held to answer for Jesus and Jesus own words of when such would be fulfilled (as he does in each) its amazing.