Acts 2:38

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A

abuniversity

Guest
#1
Why Do individuals overlook Acts 2:38. This is God's Plan of Salvation for us today. This is The New Testament Plan of Salvation. So-called Christians need to study the Book of Acts more closely. Need more help, contact Apostolic Bible University at: www.abuniversity.webs.com. An online-based, tuition-free Bible University for all who want to attend.
 
J

jimmydiggs

Guest
#2
But, all this Greek stuff may be confusing. Let me break it down. All people are commanded to repent for their sins. This is what believers have already done by becoming Christians. Baptism, then, is the outward identification with being a Christian for those who have already repented. Also, as the Israelites were "baptized into Moses" (1 Cor. 10:2), so too, Christians are baptized into Jesus. That is, they are identifying themselves, publicly, with Christ. Likewise, in Rom. 6:1-5 where baptism is related to death, burial, and resurrection, it is again an identification with Christ in His death, burial, and resurrection. That is why it is said of Christians that we have died to sin (Rom. 6:2, 11; Gal. 2:19-20; Col. 2:20; Col. 3:3; 1 Pet. 2:24).
This verse is not demonstrating that baptism is essential for salvation, but that baptism is the thing which we receive, in order to publicly identify ourselves completely and totally with Christ as a manifestation of the inward work God has done within us.



Baptism and Acts 2:38 | Christian Apologetics and Research Ministry <--- click
Dinner is served.
 

cronjecj

Banned [Reason: ongoing "extreme error/heresy" Den
Sep 25, 2011
1,934
13
0
#3
Why Do individuals overlook Acts 2:38. This is God's Plan of Salvation for us today. This is The New Testament Plan of Salvation. So-called Christians need to study the Book of Acts more closely. Need more help, contact Apostolic Bible University at: www.abuniversity.webs.com. An online-based, tuition-free Bible University for all who want to attend.
Hi,

Was the dying thief on the cross baptized?
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#4
This might help some. Insiteful insight on acts 2: 38. Must of the most misunderstood and mistranslated verses in scripture (next to John 3: 5)

ACTS 2:38
The bedrock verse for Baptismal Regeneration is Acts 2:38. The whole idea of how Bible verses concerning salvation, purification, washing, and water, are to be interpreted, hinges upon their doctrinal dogmatism upon this single verse. They see this as the clearest, and most straightforward presentation of the gospel message in all of the Scripture.

“Then Peter said unto them, 'Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.”

By isolating this, and ignoring the rest of Scripture on the subject, we see that they come up with a gospel formula on their own. Repentance…. Baptism “for” the remission of sins…. Only then does one receive the Holy Ghost.

Where we can get off track on this issue is by ignoring the whole of what Scripture says on the issue, and isolating any individual verse from the greater context of all Scripture. Keep in mind that the vast majority of passages concerning salvation in Scripture do not even contain the slightest reference to baptism. All salvation passages connect faith, or belief, as the means by which salvation is conferred upon individuals, but relatively few of them mention baptism. This begs the question. Why should we blindly accept that baptism is essential to salvation in full defiance of hundreds of passages to the contrary that teach that we are saved by faith, without baptism? It is impossible to defy the conclusion that if through faith, one person can be saved without water baptism, then everybody can! The fact that in some salvation passages we see a reference to baptism is significant, and must be addressed. Further discussion upon this significance will be shown later on when we consider the usage of baptism in the Early Church. For now, it is sufficient enough to acknowledge that there are passages that speak of the two together. The point is, that in view of the whole of Scripture, this significance is minor. The minority of passages do not override the majority. Either side must not ignore the presence of the other, but we must look at it holistically; not by pitting one passage against another. The fact that there are viable and Biblical answers to the claims of Baptismal Regeneration cannot be ignored. One must take sides either for or against Baptismal Regeneration. It is a salvation issue on either side, and therefore must be taken seriously.

The Baptismal Regenerationist argues fiercely that Acts 2:38 states that Peter presents the Gospel to include immersion baptism. The people, pricked in their hearts cried out, "what must we do to be saved?" Peter’s answer to their question is: “Repent, and be baptized every one of you for the remission of sins.” “That is “plain as day” as to what one must “do” in order to be saved,” they would say. Isolating the passage, as they would do, we see that the argument from logic seems quite formidable. But what of the passages that omit any such injunction to water baptism? Are we not promised that if we “call upon the name of the Lord” we “shalt be saved.”? What are we to say about salvation when we are told that we are “saved by grace though faith; and that not of ourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, (baptism, church attendance, tithing, etc.) lest any man should boast.”? Does one principle on either side void the meaning in the other? This cannot be so! There must be a reasonable way to put these things together.

Unfortunately, the most of us are restricted to the poverty of the English language. In doing so, we are robbed at times of the rich and exacting connections that are made in the original Greek. We are also at a loss at times to find the best word for certain translations. Am I saying that the traditional translation for Acts 2:38 is in error? No I am not. The trouble is at times that when translating a meaning for a word, exegetical experts like to translate on a word for word basis. What this means is, they pick the best single English word to replace the meaning of the singular Greek word in the passage. What happens here are that some Greek words would be better translated as several words to arrive at the best understanding of the passage in English. “For” the remission of sins is by far the best single word translation as is proven by its popularity in most translations.


 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#5
Even in the English usage we can see there are different meanings as to how the word "for" is used and applied. This we will discuss later on in our discussion. Many read into this passage that the word for means “purpose of ” or “in order to obtain.” While this is a just interpretation that can be used in many cases, it is cannot be here. There are many options that can be used for the Greek word eis in this passage, especially ones that do not make this passage contradict hundreds of other Scriptures. It would be a better multiple word translation to interpret the meaning of eis as, “on account of,” “because of ” (Matt. 12:41; Luke 11:32), “in accordance ”or “with reference to," the remission of sins. This would be more appropriate since this would keep in harmony with the passages that assert that we are saved by faith and not by any works. (See Brown, The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, 3:1208; Perschbacher, The New Analytical Greek Lexicon, page 121, eis, (with reference to; as in 2 Cor. 10:13,); Bauer-Arndt-Gingrich, Greek Lexicon, page 230 , eis, (with respect or reference to); Moulton, The Analytical Greek Lexicon Revised, page 119, eis, (with a view to; with reference to; in accordance with).

Two bits of misinformation are used in an attempt to salvage baptism as a requirement for salvation. First, the misnomer that some have propagated, " eis never means "because of." This is emphatically proven wrong by the use of eis in Matt. 12:41. The other false claim is, "the word "eis" never looks backwards." Once again, this is proven to be patently false according to Matt. 12:41. Look at the example of Scripture they say never "looks backwards." " My children are with me in (eis) bed." Luke 11:7. They were already with him in bed, there is not any reference to the future. The argument which claims that eis in Acts 2:38 can only mean that baptism is required for salvation, is clearly a false, and is either propagated out of ignorance, or by deliberate deception. It only takes one example to prove their assertion is false!

The argument is made that the term cannot be used as "reference to," or "with reference to." In Romans 6: 3 we read, "that so many of us as were baptized into (eis) Christ were baptized into (eis) his death..." 1 Corinthians 10: 2, "Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea; And were all baptized unto (eis) Moses in the cloud and in the sea." "And that "baptized unto Moses" again uses the little preposition eis, so the Bible says, "baptized eis Jesus Christ," " baptized eis his death," and "baptized eis Moses." So if baptism puts the penitent sinner into Christ, then all the nation of Israel were put into Moses. If the one is literally put into, then the other is literally put into." False Doctrines, John R. Rice, Sword of the Lord Publishers, Murfreesboro, Tennessee. Page 92. The meaning of eis is clearly used as a term of being "in reference to"; a legitimate meaning of the word. So to argue that eis cannot mean "reference to" or "with reference to" in many passages of Scripture, and it cannot hold the same meaning in Acts 2:38, is to dodge reality.

"In reference to" can be seen in another example, this time in the English usage of the word. Here are a few expressions that show that there can be more than just one justifiable use of the word. We can "take an aspirin for a headache," and we can “get paid for our work.” We do not take aspirin “for the purpose of ” getting a headache anymore than we get paid “in order to obtain ”our work. The meaning of "because" or "on account of" makes more sense in these examples, just as on account of the remission of sins does in Acts 2:38.

We are told of a leper in Luke 5:13 that was healed by the touch of Jesus. In 5:14, Jesus tells him, “go, and shew thyself to the priest, and offer for thy cleansing. ”Notice that he was not ordered to make an offering “in order to obtain” this cleansing, this would not make sense, for the healed leper already had it!

Another illustration is as follows:

1. I phoned the Doctor for (in order to) some medicine.

2. I phoned the Doctor for (in behalf of) my child.

3. I phoned the Doctor for (on account of) my sickness.

4. I phoned the Doctor for (with respect to) the bill he sent. (Bob Ross, Acts 2:38 and Baptismal Remission, pp.45-48 , Pilgrim Publications, Pasadena, TX, 1987)

Just as English translation does not lock us into the idea that baptism is a prerequisite for salvation, the English does not assert or demand which of the meanings of "eis" we should choose. The laws of hermeneutics however, demand that “on account of the remission of sins” is the only Scripturally consistent translation to consider.

But if the argument from Scripture consistency and the use of English wording is not enough to convince you, then we should look at the clarity of the Greek.

Bob Ross in his book, Acts 2:38 and Baptismal Remission, pp.45-48 (Pilgrim Publications, Pasadena, TX, 1987), makes some important points about this verse and its three clauses:

"The American Standard Version (1901) renders Acts 2:38 as follows: Repent ye, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ unto the remission of your sins; and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.

"... there are three clauses in this sentence, and the modifying phrases must stand in their respective, individual clauses, according to the rules of grammar. Consequently, if 'repent' is in a distinct clause from 'be baptized ' the modifying phrase "for the remission of sin" cannot modify both 'repent' and 'be baptized'


"The three clauses are --
(1) 'Repent ye:'

'ye' -- subject, second person plural number.

'Repent' -- verb, second person plural number, aorist imperative active voice.

(2) 'be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ unto the remission of sins:'

“every one of you” – third person, singular number.

'be baptized' -- verb, third person singular number, aorist passive imperative voice.

“unto the remission of your sins” – modifying phrase.

(3) 'ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit:'

'ye' -- subject, second person plural number.

'shall receive' -- verb, second person plural number, future, indicative voice.

'the gift of the Holy Spirit' -- direct object of verb.

"For the claims of Campbellism (Baptismal Regeneration) to be upheld, the first and second clauses would have to be connected so as to allow 'for the remission of sins' to modify both 'repent' and 'be baptized.' However, this presents the following grammatical problem: In the first clause, the person and number of the verb 'repent' do not agree with the verb 'be baptized' in the second clause. 'Repent' is second person plural number; 'be baptized' is third person singular number.

"It is a rule of Greek grammar, as it is in English, that the verb agrees with its subject in person and number:"

"Person is the quality of verbs which indicates whether the subject is speaking (first person), is being spoken to (second person), or is being spoken of (third person) ...

"Number is the quality of verbs which indicates whether the subject is singular or plural" Ray Summers, Essentials of New Testament Greek (Nashville: Broadman Press, 1950), p.12:


"If the subject of a verb is the person or the group of persons speaking, the verb is in the first person. If the subject of a verb is the person or group of persons spoken to, the verb is in the second person. If the subject of a verb is the person or the thing or the group spoken of, the verb is the third person" Let's Study Greek by Clarence B. Hale (Chicago: Moody Press, 1966), p. 9:

"These quotations from 'standard' Greek grammars express the simple fact that subjects and verbs agree with one another.

"It is evident, then, that repentance and baptism in Acts 2:38 cannot be combined so as to have both modified by the phrase, 'for the remission of sins.' The proper grammatical construction of the sentence forbids it.

To express this graphically, I enclose the following:

Repent ye, --------------------->
2nd person
ye shall receive ------------------------------>
2nd person
the gift of the Holy Spirit
object of 2nd person

All of you repent and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit

every one of you --------------->
3rd person
be baptized ----------------------------------->
3rd person
unto the remission of sins
object of third person



Every one of you (who repented and received the Holy Spirit) be baptized because the remission of sins.

(This is implied by verse 41. “Then they that received his word were baptized." )




 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#6


The point that is obvious in the Greek is that the idea of repentance and the reception of the gift of the Holy Spirit is a separate action or event from the command to the persons to whom the baptism “for” the remission of sins is addressed. As much some may wish, we cannot deny the obvious separation given in the Greek and place the two events together as one little tight package. It is logical to think that the third person exhortation to be baptized is addressed to those within the third person plural group, those that were exhorted to repent and receive the Holy Spirit. It would be rightfully assumed that they had already possessed the Holy Spirit and and salvation, and were candidates for baptism, therefore they were baptized in "reference to" the remission of sins. They were saved before they were baptized. You baptize a believer, and you have a testimony. You baptize an unsaved person, and all you have is a wet sinner! Water does not save or convert. God is not limited to water! They were baptized because their sins were already remitted!

But some may baulk at the idea that "because" holds any authority as its meaning. What do the Greek experts think?

"Dana and Mantly in their excellent treatment of the Greek prepositions based upon the papyri findings, give as as one of the uses of the word as "because of." Word Studies in the Greek New Testament, Kenneth Wuest, Wm. B. Eerdmans Publishing Company, Grand Rapids, MI. 49502. (vol. 3:77).

Wuest translates as follows, "and let each one of you be baptized upon the ground of your confession of belief in the sum total of all that Jesus Christ is in His glorious Person, this baptismal testimony being in relation to the fact that your sins have been put away..." The New Testament: An Expanded Translation, Kenneth Wuest, Wm. B. Eerdmans Publishing Company, Grand Rapids, MI. 49502. Page 276.

Robertson remarks, "And let each one of you be baptized." "Change of number from plural to singular and person from second to third. This change marks a break in the thought here that the English translation does not preserve." (vol. 3:34). "Unto the remission of your sins... This phrase is the subject of endless controversy as men look at it from the standpoint of sacramental or of evangelical theology... It is seen in Matt. 10:41 in three examples (of eis) where it cannot be purpose or aim, but rather the basis or ground, on the basis of the name of prophet, righteous man, disciple, because one is, etc." (3:35). "So I understand Peter to be urging baptism on each of them who had already turned (repented) and for it to be done in the name of Jesus Christ on the basis of forgiveness of sins already received." (3:36). Word Pictures In The New Testament, A.T. Robertson, Broadman Press, Nashville, Tn. 1930.

I will give one last example from the use of language to show how the rigid Baptismal Regenerationists' assertion that eis can only mean "for" or "in order to obtain" the remission of sins, is proven to be impossible. They must be dogmatic about it, or the whole theological house of cards they have built upon it will come tumbling down at the slightest gust from the wind of truth. But what if we take their street-corner linguistic approach and apply it to Matthew 3:11? "I indeed baptize you with water unto (eis) repentance..." Where does our rigid method of folk linguistics lead us with this passage? If it is true that one must be baptized "in order to" receive remission of sins, it is inevitably true that you must be baptized "in order to" repent! The logic is irresistible! You must be baptized "in order to" repent! We have it in Scripture, you cannot repent until you are baptized! But John disagrees; he places repentance as the condition of baptism. It is impossible that one must repent before they are baptized, and at the same time cannot repent until after they are baptized. Both cannot be true. The same can be said about the rigid use of eis in Acts 2:38. It cannot be true that we are said to be saved by grace through faith in innumerable passages, and only through water baptism in a few; and only if we apply a failed "it can only mean one thing" approach to the meaning of eis that every credible linguist, and the inspired Scriptures emphatically deny. It cannot be denied that the use of language admits that Acts 2:38 can mean that you must be baptized in order to be saved. It also cannot be denied that eis in Acts 2:38, and everywhere else in Scripture, can have more than one limited meaning. Weighed out against the wealth of Scripture to the contrary of Baptismal Regeneration, one can defy logic, linguistics, and Scriptural consistency, and hold tenaciously to their pet theory; but they will not have truth or the Gospel.

If Acts 2:38 "is the Gospel" as many Baptismal Regenerationists claim (their interpretation of it), they must scratch their heads in amazement as to how the Christians of the first 200 years missed it! It is no doubt that the Early Church preached the Gospel. The surviving writings that we have today shows how steeped in Scripture they were in their letters. If this passage were the "Gospel in a nutshell," then why didn't the Early Church writers pull it out of their selective arsenal of Scriptures to preach the Gospel? Why were they not as dazzled and centered on this singular passage as the modern day "Restorationists" are? Could it be that those steeped in the language, the culture, the teachings of the apostles, actually understood the passage, that it didn't put baptism as the cause of salvation? I have never heard a rational explanation that would account for the silence of the Early Church concerning the neglect of this so-called perfect, "Gospel in a nutshell"!
 
P

prophecyman

Guest
#7
Hi,

Was the dying thief on the cross baptized?
You do realize that dying thief that died, did so under the old Testament. The New Testament or covenant is of no effect until after the death of the Testator. So the thief was saved through the words of Jesus under the Law.

Hence the great commission with new commands was in force when he accended on high.
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#8
You do realize that dying thief that died, did so under the old Testament. The New Testament or covenant is of no effect until after the death of the Testator. So the thief was saved through the words of Jesus under the Law.

Hence the great commission with new commands was in force when he accended on high.

You do realize that no one in the Old Testament was saved under the Old covenant don't you?

No one was ever saved by the law. By the priest, or by anything. Everyone thought the history of man will be saved the same way.


The covenants are the way God deals with man on earth. Not with the way Man returns to a relationship with god on an eternal basis.
 
P

prophecyman

Guest
#9
The point that is obvious in the Greek is that the idea of repentance and the reception of the gift of the Holy Spirit is a separate action or event from the command to the persons to whom the baptism “for” the remission of sins is addressed. As much some may wish, we cannot deny the obvious separation given in the Greek and place the two events together as one little tight package. It is logical to think that the third person exhortation to be baptized is addressed to those within the third person plural group, those that were exhorted to repent and receive the Holy Spirit. It would be rightfully assumed that they had already possessed the Holy Spirit and and salvation, and were candidates for baptism, therefore they were baptized in "reference to" the remission of sins. They were saved before they were baptized. You baptize a believer, and you have a testimony. You baptize an unsaved person, and all you have is a wet sinner! Water does not save or convert. God is not limited to water! They were baptized because their sins were already remitted!

But some may baulk at the idea that "because" holds any authority as its meaning. What do the Greek experts think?

"Dana and Mantly in their excellent treatment of the Greek prepositions based upon the papyri findings, give as as one of the uses of the word as "because of." Word Studies in the Greek New Testament, Kenneth Wuest, Wm. B. Eerdmans Publishing Company, Grand Rapids, MI. 49502. (vol. 3:77).

Wuest translates as follows, "and let each one of you be baptized upon the ground of your confession of belief in the sum total of all that Jesus Christ is in His glorious Person, this baptismal testimony being in relation to the fact that your sins have been put away..." The New Testament: An Expanded Translation, Kenneth Wuest, Wm. B. Eerdmans Publishing Company, Grand Rapids, MI. 49502. Page 276.

Robertson remarks, "And let each one of you be baptized." "Change of number from plural to singular and person from second to third. This change marks a break in the thought here that the English translation does not preserve." (vol. 3:34). "Unto the remission of your sins... This phrase is the subject of endless controversy as men look at it from the standpoint of sacramental or of evangelical theology... It is seen in Matt. 10:41 in three examples (of eis) where it cannot be purpose or aim, but rather the basis or ground, on the basis of the name of prophet, righteous man, disciple, because one is, etc." (3:35). "So I understand Peter to be urging baptism on each of them who had already turned (repented) and for it to be done in the name of Jesus Christ on the basis of forgiveness of sins already received." (3:36). Word Pictures In The New Testament, A.T. Robertson, Broadman Press, Nashville, Tn. 1930.

I will give one last example from the use of language to show how the rigid Baptismal Regenerationists' assertion that eis can only mean "for" or "in order to obtain" the remission of sins, is proven to be impossible. They must be dogmatic about it, or the whole theological house of cards they have built upon it will come tumbling down at the slightest gust from the wind of truth. But what if we take their street-corner linguistic approach and apply it to Matthew 3:11? "I indeed baptize you with water unto (eis) repentance..." Where does our rigid method of folk linguistics lead us with this passage? If it is true that one must be baptized "in order to" receive remission of sins, it is inevitably true that you must be baptized "in order to" repent! The logic is irresistible! You must be baptized "in order to" repent! We have it in Scripture, you cannot repent until you are baptized! But John disagrees; he places repentance as the condition of baptism. It is impossible that one must repent before they are baptized, and at the same time cannot repent until after they are baptized. Both cannot be true. The same can be said about the rigid use of eis in Acts 2:38. It cannot be true that we are said to be saved by grace through faith in innumerable passages, and only through water baptism in a few; and only if we apply a failed "it can only mean one thing" approach to the meaning of eis that every credible linguist, and the inspired Scriptures emphatically deny. It cannot be denied that the use of language admits that Acts 2:38 can mean that you must be baptized in order to be saved. It also cannot be denied that eis in Acts 2:38, and everywhere else in Scripture, can have more than one limited meaning. Weighed out against the wealth of Scripture to the contrary of Baptismal Regeneration, one can defy logic, linguistics, and Scriptural consistency, and hold tenaciously to their pet theory; but they will not have truth or the Gospel.

If Acts 2:38 "is the Gospel" as many Baptismal Regenerationists claim (their interpretation of it), they must scratch their heads in amazement as to how the Christians of the first 200 years missed it! It is no doubt that the Early Church preached the Gospel. The surviving writings that we have today shows how steeped in Scripture they were in their letters. If this passage were the "Gospel in a nutshell," then why didn't the Early Church writers pull it out of their selective arsenal of Scriptures to preach the Gospel? Why were they not as dazzled and centered on this singular passage as the modern day "Restorationists" are? Could it be that those steeped in the language, the culture, the teachings of the apostles, actually understood the passage, that it didn't put baptism as the cause of salvation? I have never heard a rational explanation that would account for the silence of the Early Church concerning the neglect of this so-called perfect, "Gospel in a nutshell"!
Do you suppose that Peter was mistaken, and that he did not fully understand the commandment that Jesus gave in Matt. 28:19 "Go ye therefore, and teach all nations baptizing them in the name...

In Acts 2:37 We find that those Jews who were gathered for the feast of Pentecost, asked... Men and brothers, what must must we do? Do you think Peter instructed them in his personal interpretation of what Jesus commanded?

Did Peter tell the Gentiles of the household of Cornelius any differently? "Can any man forbid water that these should not be baptized, which have recieved the Holy Spirit as well as we?" And he commanded them to be baptized in the NAME OF THE LORD JESUS CHRIST. Read Acts 10:44-48

The fact remains that the Apostles taught that baptism was essential, for it was for the remission of sins...

if you purchase a candy bar in a store for a dollar, you have redeemed the price of the candy bar and it becomes your purchase posession. This is what happens when a convert is baptized, it is not merely an identification with Christ, but is indeed being baptized into Christ, then when the convert receives the Promise of the Father (Holy Spirit) then it is Christ in them the Hope of Glory. Everyone in the book of Acts was baptized in the Name of Jesus Christ.
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#10
Do you suppose that Peter was mistaken, and that he did not fully understand the commandment that Jesus gave in Matt. 28:19 "Go ye therefore, and teach all nations baptizing them in the name...
Again. language helps us understand.

1. Make disciples.
2. Baptize them.

not this way.

baptize them to make them disciples.


In Acts 2:37 We find that those Jews who were gathered for the feast of Pentecost, asked... Men and brothers, what must must we do? Do you think Peter instructed them in his personal interpretation of what Jesus commanded?

Did Peter tell the Gentiles of the household of Cornelius any differently? "Can any man forbid water that these should not be baptized, which have recieved the Holy Spirit as well as we?" And he commanded them to be baptized in the NAME OF THE LORD JESUS CHRIST. Read Acts 10:44-48

The fact remains that the Apostles taught that baptism was essential, for it was for the remission of sins...

if you purchase a candy bar in a store for a dollar, you have redeemed the price of the candy bar and it becomes your purchase posession. This is what happens when a convert is baptized, it is not merely an identification with Christ, but is indeed being baptized into Christ, then when the convert receives the Promise of the Father (Holy Spirit) then it is Christ in them the Hope of Glory. Everyone in the book of Acts was baptized in the Name of Jesus Christ.

did you even read the post? language does not support your theory.

you don't tell everyone to repent so they can recieve the gift of the spirit. and only tell some to be baptized for remission of sin, if everyone could repent and be baptized to recieve both. It makes no sense.


In either case. language of either verse does not support what your saying.
 
U

Ugly

Guest
#11
Why Do individuals overlook Acts 2:38. This is God's Plan of Salvation for us today. This is The New Testament Plan of Salvation. So-called Christians need to study the Book of Acts more closely. Need more help, contact Apostolic Bible University at: www.abuniversity.webs.com. An online-based, tuition-free Bible University for all who want to attend.

You seem more interested in advertising than anything. You are the one who told a confused new user who was asking how to enter chats that they should go to your website for help...
 
P

prophecyman

Guest
#12
You do realize that no one in the Old Testament was saved under the Old covenant don't you?

No one was ever saved by the law. By the priest, or by anything. Everyone thought the history of man will be saved the same way.

The covenants are the way God deals with man on earth. Not with the way Man returns to a relationship with god on an eternal basis.
Sorry, but to assume that no one was saved in the Old testament by the provisions that God ordained, is for the most part lacking understanding. Jesus could not be called the lamb slain from the foundation (begining) of the world, if the blood wasn't shed for every man.

Meaning... that his shed blood transcended all time and the sins of the world converged at the cross,for it is written: The Lord laid the iniquity of us all upon him. So all those old testament saints received their redemption. For he decended into hell (Sheol) and led captivity captive. Meaning... that those old testament saints were ressurected on the day he ressurected, which is the very day that the festival of first fruits was celebrated.

When he arose, others arose and came out of the graves after his resurrection, for Christ is the first fruits of the resurrection, and those who were ressurected are the first partakers of that life and resurrection which is Christ.
 
P

prophecyman

Guest
#13
Again. language helps us understand.

1. Make disciples.
2. Baptize them.

not this way.

baptize them to make them disciples.



did you even read the post? language does not support your theory.

you don't tell everyone to repent so they can recieve the gift of the spirit. and only tell some to be baptized for remission of sin, if everyone could repent and be baptized to recieve both. It makes no sense.

In either case. language of either verse does not support what your saying.
I know that Jesus trained and taught these men, I know what Jesus meant. My opinion does not count, but I believe in his Name and have the Holy Spirit which is the Spirit of Christ, which is the Spirit of God, which is the Spirit of Truth, which is the Spirit of prophecy.

I will pray with the Spirit and with my understanding also, thank God that I understand that there is life through his name, and I will hold on to that hope which is in the Name. ACTS 4:12
 
L

Laodicea

Guest
#14

You do realize that no one in the Old Testament was saved under the Old covenant don't you?

No one was ever saved by the law. By the priest, or by anything. Everyone thought the history of man will be saved the same way.


The covenants are the way God deals with man on earth. Not with the way Man returns to a relationship with god on an eternal basis.
Galatians 3:8
(8) And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#15
Sorry, but to assume that no one was saved in the Old testament by the provisions that God ordained, is for the most part lacking understanding. Jesus could not be called the lamb slain from the foundation (begining) of the world, if the blood wasn't shed for every man.

Meaning... that his shed blood transcended all time and the sins of the world converged at the cross,for it is written: The Lord laid the iniquity of us all upon him. So all those old testament saints received their redemption. For he decended into hell (Sheol) and led captivity captive. Meaning... that those old testament saints were ressurected on the day he ressurected, which is the very day that the festival of first fruits was celebrated.

When he arose, others arose and came out of the graves after his resurrection, for Christ is the first fruits of the resurrection, and those who were ressurected are the first partakers of that life and resurrection which is Christ.

WHich is exactly what I was saying. No one was saved by being baptized before the law. Between the law and the church. And no one will be saved today by getting wet in water. Thus to misinterpret acts 2: 38 to try to force people to believe water baptism is a prerequisite for remmision of sin is a dangerous, and faulty gospel (Gal 1)
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#16
Galatians 3:8
(8) And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.

Amen and Amen. The same Gospel we are to hold fast to is the same Gospel God taught Abraham. Before any law, and before any tradition.
 
L

Laodicea

Guest
#17

Amen and Amen. The same Gospel we are to hold fast to is the same Gospel God taught Abraham. Before any law, and before any tradition.
Also the Bible says that Adam & Eve were clothed with coats of skins from God, those coats came from the lamb that they sacrificed, 'the lamb slain from the foundation of the earth' to teach the Christ who would die in their place so it was God who taught the gospel before anyone
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#18
Also the Bible says that Adam & Eve were clothed with coats of skins from God, those coats came from the lamb that they sacrificed, 'the lamb slain from the foundation of the earth' to teach the Christ who would die in their place so it was God who taught the gospel before anyone
Yep. And lets not forget all the lambs slain by Abraham Issac, Jacob, Noah. etc etc. All before the law was even given.
 
Oct 12, 2011
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#19
Not for nothing but..... Has anyone considered, that these coats of skins may have very well been
these Skins we wear today, (the flesh)?

If they were the clothing of Righteousness from The Lamb, why were they still put out of the
Garden?

Just asking

Blessings
 
P

prophecyman

Guest
#20
WHich is exactly what I was saying. No one was saved by being baptized before the law. Between the law and the church. And no one will be saved today by getting wet in water. Thus to misinterpret acts 2: 38 to try to force people to believe water baptism is a prerequisite for remmision of sin is a dangerous, and faulty gospel (Gal 1)

Well I don't know about that, but I do understand that baptism in water was practice in the old testament, we have the prophet Johns example which to consider, and Jesus said we must be born of the water and Spirit, sorry but Jesus made the commission clear.