And Abraham Called The Name Of That place Jehovah-Jireh:

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
25,725
13,583
113
#21
If the translation had used His Name where present in the words instead of substituting "the Lord", it would have been more clear.
"The LORD" was the equivalent of "Adonai" (Lord) which the Jews had substituted out of reverence for YHWH (or YHVH). Today the Jews substitute "HaShem" (the Name) for the same reason.
 
E

evyaniy

Guest
#22
the LORD in Caps is usually substituted for YHVH. The "the" is added which changes the meaning some in most cases. Lord in lower case is usually substituted for Adonai in most translations. It has caused much confusion and hidden lots of meaning just as in this passage where if His Name YHVH was allowed to remain in the text, the Speaker would be more apparent.
 
E

evyaniy

Guest
#23
Plus if they knew His Name was pronounced YAHAVAH they would recognize it means Eternal Word or Command, as well as Eternal Love which is in the sound of His Name in the Hebrew. That points to the Son Who is the Eternal Word and Eternal Love of the Father.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
25,725
13,583
113
#24
The "the" is added which changes the meaning some in most cases.
How can it "change the meaning"? Now you are simply nit-picking. Anyone can go to a concordance and see that it stand for the Hebrew יְהוָ֣ה
(Yah-weh), which is the proper name of God. Thus we have "And the LORD God (Yahweh Elohim) commanded the man, saying, Of every tree of the garden thou mayest freely eat" (Gen2:16).
 

bluto

Senior Member
Aug 4, 2016
2,097
529
113
#25
Sounds like the Father speaking based on what He said.

1 And it came to pass after these things, that Elohim did tempt Abraham, and said unto him, Abraham: and he said, Behold, here I am.
2 And He said, Take now thy son, thine only son Isaac, whom thou lovest, and get thee into the land of Moriah; and offer him there for a burnt offering upon one of the mountains which I will tell thee of.

11 And the angel of YHVH called unto him out of heaven, and said, Abraham, Abraham: and he said, Here am I.
12 And He said, Lay not thine hand upon the lad, neither do thou any thing unto him: for now I know that thou fearest Elohim, seeing thou hast not withheld thy son, thine only son from Me.

15 And the angel of YHVH called unto Abraham out of heaven the second time,
16 And said, By Myself have I sworn, saith YHVH, for because thou hast done this thing, and hast not withheld thy son, thine only son:

17 That in blessing I will bless thee, and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed as the stars of the heaven, and as the sand which is upon the sea shore; and thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies;
18 And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; because thou hast obeyed My voice.
No, God the Father is not speaking according to the text. Genesis 22:11, "But the angel of the Lord called to him from heaven AND SAID." Also at Genesis 22:15-16, "Then the angel of the Lord called to Abraham a second time FROM HEAVEN. vs16, AND SAID, "By Myself I have sworn, declares the Lord."

So, kindly explain how the Father is speaking when the text clearly says the angel of the Lord is speaking? Now, God does speak at times from heaven at Exodus 20:22 and in the New Testament at Mark 1:11, "and a voice came out of the heavens; "Thou art My beloved Son, in Thee I am well-pleased."

So, the question for you is why does God use the angel of the Lord to not only call out from heaven to Abraham but swears an oath to Abraham when He/God could do it Himself? Look what Genesis 24:7 states, "The Lord, the God of heaven, who took me from my Father's house and from the land of my birth, and who spoke to me, and who swore to me, saying, "To your descendants I will give this land, He will send His angel before you, and you will take a wife for my son from there." So we have here two distinct persons identified as the one being of God.

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto