Are the Gospels written specifically to Jews only?

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Absolutely

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No, this doesn't mean that Jesus and His disciples had already been freed from the Law. When the Lord says "it was written ..., but I say"
He is expounding the Law, not making it obsolete.
Again IT IS WRITTEN.
"The law and the prophets were until John"

I can look it up for you.
 

Absolutely

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Acts 7 -

51 Ye stiffnecked and uncircumcised in heart and ears, ye do always resist the Holy Ghost: as your fathers did, so do ye.

52 Which of the prophets have not your fathers persecuted? and they have slain them which shewed before of the coming of the Just One; of whom ye have been now the betrayers and murderers:

53 Who have received the law by the disposition of angels, and have not kept it.

54 When they heard these things, they were cut to the heart, and they gnashed on him with their teeth.
Amen.
Good post
[continuing my post]

Luke 7 [regarding John the Baptist] -

26 But what went ye out for to see? A prophet? Yea, I say unto you, and much more than a prophet.

27 This is he, of whom it is written, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee.

28 For I say unto you, Among those that are born of women there is not a greater prophet than John the Baptist: but he that is least in the kingdom of God is greater than he.

29 And all the people that heard him, and the publicans, justified God, being baptized with the baptism of John.

30 But the Pharisees and lawyers rejected the counsel of God against themselves, being not baptized of him.


Acts 18:25-26 -

25 This man was instructed in the way of the Lord; and being fervent in the spirit, he spake and taught diligently the things of the Lord, knowing only the baptism of John.

26 And he began to speak boldly in the synagogue: whom when Aquila and Priscilla had heard, they took him unto them, and expounded unto him the way of God more perfectly.
Good post
The word is always appropriate.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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53 Who have received the law by the disposition of angels, and have not kept it.

54 When they heard these things, they were cut to the heart, and they gnashed on him with their teeth.


Romans 9 -

4 Who are Israelites; to whom pertaineth the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises;


Romans 7:1-4 "...(for I speak to them that know the law)…"
 

Absolutely

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So this verse ^ is in Luke 16:16.

John the Baptist is said to be dead in Luke 9:9.

I'm trying to ascertain your points, here.

Oh, and remember what I'd put about Jesus and His being "a Prophet like unto Moses" in His earthly ministry (BEFORE His death, Acts 3:22[26])… meaning, "a Prophet" indeed came after JtB, right?



Are you suggesting that Melchisedec was baptized in water? (just trying to figure out what you mean exactly)
The priesthood changed at baptism.
The priests were baptised into the priesthood.
JTB was the legitimate priest.
Ciaphus and annas were roman appointees.

Jesus had to be baptised to enter his priestly ministry.
At the cross,he acted as priest and sacrifice.
His tunic was a priests robe.
Ciaphus tore his,thereby recusing him from his priestly duties.
Jesus's COULD NOT BE. that is why his could not possibly be subjected to being torn.
The priesthood changed to Judah/David/melchesidic

That happened at Jesus baptism.

So,it is OBVIOUS, the Gospels properly align with the nt.
100% nt
 

Grandpa

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In Jesus' day the law was supreceeded.
" you have heard it is written...."

"But i say...."

" unless your righteousness exceeds the righteousness of the Pharisee...."

Then we see him breaking the sabboth and laws of washing.
The Lord Jesus wasn't superseding the law.

He was explaining it.

How it was a heart issue and not a strength of human will issue.


The Lord Jesus didn't break any laws. He only broke the Pharisees carnal (mis)understanding of them.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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The Lord Jesus wasn't superseding the law.
He was explaining it.
How it was a heart issue and not a strength of human will issue.

The Lord Jesus didn't break any laws. He only broke the Pharisees carnal (mis)understanding of them.
Right. This is how I understand it as well.


Acts 3:26 [bsb] - [Peter, speaking to "ye men of Israel"] -

"When God raised up His servant [this was in His earthly ministry BEFORE His death ('a prophet like unto Moses'--law stuffs)], He sent Him first to you [that is, Israel] to bless you by turning each of you from your wicked ways.”
 

Marcelo

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Again IT IS WRITTEN.
"The law and the prophets were until John"

I can look it up for you.
The Lord Jesus didn't say the Law and the Prophets were in effect only until John -- He said they were proclaimed until John. In verse 17 the Lord says the Law will not cease to exist.

16 “The Law and the Prophets were proclaimed until John. Since that time, the good news of the kingdom of God is being preached, and everyone is forcing their way into it. 17 It is easier for heaven and earth to disappear than for the least stroke of a pen to drop out of the Law.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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[continuing my post ^ ]

Hebrews 3:5 -

"5 And Moses verily was faithful in all his house, as a servant, for a testimony of those things which were to be spoken after"



[note: some versions have "his" as capitalized, which I do not believe to be the correct understanding of the passage]
 

dcontroversal

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No.....In Christ there is neither Jew nor Gentile and the two have been made ONE in Christ........Jew, Gentile and regardless of nationality....one is either saved and in Christ or lost.....there is but one gospel of salvation for all of humanity......
 

Churinga

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No.....In Christ there is neither Jew nor Gentile and the two have been made ONE in Christ........Jew, Gentile and regardless of nationality....one is either saved and in Christ or lost.....there is but one gospel of salvation for all of humanity......
The question relates to the Gospel of Matthew Mark Luke and John, the Gospel you speak about came a lot later, you simply answer is just that.
 

dcontroversal

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The question relates to the Gospel of Matthew Mark Luke and John, the Gospel you speak about came a lot later, you simply answer is just that.
Not hardly.......and I suggest you look deeper....the Roman Soldier, which was a GENTILE had greater faith than the JEWS in Israel......and even in the O.T. there were numerous provisions made for Gentile believers.......LUKE was also the only GENTILE writer....he wrote LUKE and Acts..........the Samaritan woman was a mixed breed JEW and MANY in that city believed......
 

Guojing

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No.....In Christ there is neither Jew nor Gentile and the two have been made ONE in Christ........Jew, Gentile and regardless of nationality....one is either saved and in Christ or lost.....there is but one gospel of salvation for all of humanity......
Matthew 15
21 Then Jesus left Galilee and went north to the region of Tyre and Sidon. 22 A Gentile[e] woman who lived there came to him, pleading, “Have mercy on me, O Lord, Son of David! For my daughter is possessed by a demon that torments her severely.”23 But Jesus gave her no reply, not even a word. Then his disciples urged him to send her away. “Tell her to go away,” they said. “She is bothering us with all her begging.”24 Then Jesus said to the woman, “I was sent only to help God’s lost sheep—the people of Israel.”25 But she came and worshiped him, pleading again, “Lord, help me!”

26 Jesus responded, “It isn’t right to take food from the children and throw it to the dogs.”27 She replied, “That’s true, Lord, but even dogs are allowed to eat the scraps that fall beneath their masters’ table.”28 “Dear woman,” Jesus said to her, “your faith is great. Your request is granted.” And her daughter was instantly healed.

If you think the 4 Gospels have that view, there is neither Jew nor Gentile, then how would you understand this account?
 

dcontroversal

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Matthew 15
21 Then Jesus left Galilee and went north to the region of Tyre and Sidon. 22 A Gentile[e] woman who lived there came to him, pleading, “Have mercy on me, O Lord, Son of David! For my daughter is possessed by a demon that torments her severely.”23 But Jesus gave her no reply, not even a word. Then his disciples urged him to send her away. “Tell her to go away,” they said. “She is bothering us with all her begging.”24 Then Jesus said to the woman, “I was sent only to help God’s lost sheep—the people of Israel.”25 But she came and worshiped him, pleading again, “Lord, help me!”

26 Jesus responded, “It isn’t right to take food from the children and throw it to the dogs.”27 She replied, “That’s true, Lord, but even dogs are allowed to eat the scraps that fall beneath their masters’ table.”28 “Dear woman,” Jesus said to her, “your faith is great. Your request is granted.” And her daughter was instantly healed.

If you think the 4 Gospels have that view, there is neither Jew nor Gentile, then how would you understand this account?
Do you think the word of God is dated?

There is BUT one GOSPEL of SALVATION....it was the SAME MESSAGE to the JEWS and to the GENTILES.....citing ONE example of HUNDREDS in Matthew, MARK, LUKE and or JOHN does not make your case.....

The law and the prophets were UNTIL JOHN...from that TIME the KINGDOM of GOD is preached to EVERY CREATURE UNDER HEAVEN......

BOTH JEWS and GENTILES were saved under the ministry of CHRIST <---ALL 4 gospels are an account of this MINISTRY....LUKE was a GENTILE BELIEVER and WRITER of LUKE, THE ROMAN CENTURION was a GENTILE believer with FAITH not SEEN in ISRAEL by JESUS.......

Your dogmatic stance is full of holes...............and your cited example proves my point....hahahhah wow man....wake up
 

Guojing

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Your dogmatic stance is full of holes...............and your cited example proves my point....hahahhah wow man....wake up
Er, at least address my point in your reply. If you think Jews and Gentiles were already equal in the book of Matthew, then why do you think
  1. Jesus ignored the Canaanite?
  2. The disciples urged Jesus to send her away (Rather ungracious don't you think?)
  3. Jesus did not rebuke their lack of grace?
  4. Jesus told her he was only sent to the Jews?
  5. Jesus called her a "dog"?
 

dcontroversal

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Er, at least address my point in your reply. If you think Jews and Gentiles were already equal in the book of Matthew, then why do you think
  1. Jesus ignored the Canaanite?
  2. The disciples urged Jesus to send her away (Rather ungracious don't you think?)
  3. Jesus did not rebuke their lack of grace?
  4. Jesus told her he was only sent to the Jews?
  5. Jesus called her a "dog"?
None of that equates to the Gentiles not being accepted in Christ......Jesus also acknowledged her faith, boasted of it and of the faith of the Roman centurion and LUKE was a GENTILE who GOD inspired to write ONE of the gospels.....
 

Churinga

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Not hardly.......and I suggest you look deeper....the Roman Soldier, which was a GENTILE had greater faith than the JEWS in Israel......and even in the O.T. there were numerous provisions made for Gentile believers.......LUKE was also the only GENTILE writer....he wrote LUKE and Acts..........the Samaritan woman was a mixed breed JEW and MANY in that city believed......
You have a lot of followers and as such come across as some type of Bible answers man where when you are under pressure you find the need to resort to shouting in lieu of sound Bible explanations in an effort to sound credible, Jesus proclaimed the Kingdom of God not the which became Pauls message of Grace, had the Jews accept that Jesus was the Son Of man but they didn't and the Kingdom has been postponed and we now know Gentiles are included is they Pauls Gospel.
 

dcontroversal

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You have a lot of followers and as such come across as some type of Bible answers man where when you are under pressure you find the need to resort to shouting in lieu of sound Bible explanations in an effort to sound credible, Jesus proclaimed the Kingdom of God not the which became Pauls message of Grace, had the Jews accept that Jesus was the Son Of man but they didn't and the Kingdom has been postponed and we now know Gentiles are included is they Pauls Gospel.
This is not AOL and I did not shout.....I wrote big so ALL can read it....called being emphatic......and the JEWS on a whole rejected...but not ALL and regardless....we cannot alleviate the fact that there is but ONE gospel and both JEW and Gentile are under that banner.....the TWO have been made ONE and BOTH are a new creation in Christ JESUS......and I disagree that the message of JESUS and PAUL are different...the words of PAUL are the words of JESUS and the words JESUS needed to speak to his disciples but they were not yet ready to bear it......
 

Churinga

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This is not AOL and I did not shout.....I wrote big so ALL can read it....called being emphatic......and the JEWS on a whole rejected...but not ALL and regardless....we cannot alleviate the fact that there is but ONE gospel and both JEW and Gentile are under that banner.....the TWO have been made ONE and BOTH are a new creation in Christ JESUS......and I disagree that the message of JESUS and PAUL are different...the words of PAUL are the words of JESUS and the words JESUS needed to speak to his disciples but they were not yet ready to bear it......
As usual the need to go off topic has arise which is no surprise.
 

John146

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This is not AOL and I did not shout.....I wrote big so ALL can read it....called being emphatic......and the JEWS on a whole rejected...but not ALL and regardless....we cannot alleviate the fact that there is but ONE gospel and both JEW and Gentile are under that banner.....the TWO have been made ONE and BOTH are a new creation in Christ JESUS......and I disagree that the message of JESUS and PAUL are different...the words of PAUL are the words of JESUS and the words JESUS needed to speak to his disciples but they were not yet ready to bear it......
If the disciples did not understand it, what is this gospel of the kingdom that they were preaching? Obviously it was not the forgiveness of sins through the cross.