Are WOMEN Pastors Biblical??

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notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
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Following the teaching of Paul in 1 Cor we must always ask ourselves... "what builds up the body of Christ?" The gifts of the Spirit that operate in the members seeks to build up the body of Christ. If an interpretation attempts to pull down a member who is building up the body of Christ we can know that it is a bad hermeneutic.
Wonderful pontification.

It is not what but Who builds up the body. Christ is fully able to do that which pleases the Father in the church.

Building doctrine on error is bad hermeneutic.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

101G

Banned
Apr 1, 2021
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In the Name of the Lord Jesus, Many are still not understanding that a MINISTER or SERVANT in the Chruch carry many task or WORK. we all know that Paul was an apostle. and many ends right there. no, Paul was a preacher, teacher, prophet, and Pastor/Pastor.

Fact #1. Paul as a Preacher, 1 Timothy 2:7 "Whereunto I am ordained a preacher, and an apostle, (I speak the truth in Christ, and lie not;) a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and verity."

Fact #2. Paul as Teacher, 1 Corinthians 4:17 "For this cause have I sent unto you Timotheus, who is my beloved son, and faithful in the Lord, who shall bring you into remembrance of my ways which be in Christ, as I teach every where in every church."

Fact #3. Paul a Prophet, 1 Corinthians 13:2 "And though I have the gift of prophecy, and understand all mysteries, and all knowledge; and though I have all faith, so that I could remove mountains, and have not charity, I am nothing."
there it is, the Gift of prophecy Paul is a prophet

Fact #4. Paul is a Pastor/Bishop, same verse, 1 Corinthians 13:2 "And though I have the gift of prophecy, and understand all mysteries, and all knowledge; and though I have all faith, so that I could remove mountains, and have not charity, I am nothing."
UNDERSTANDING, and KNOWLEDGE? yes, the Pastoral Gift. supportive scripture, Jeremiah 3:15 "And I will give you pastors according to mine heart, which shall feed you with knowledge and understanding." there is the Pastor... Paul, all KNOWLEDGE, and all UNDERSTANDING. the Pastor is a GIFT, and not an office, as said, it is the very first gift listen in 1 Corinthians 12:8. to feed the flock of God.

and God "SET"/Ordain all of them, yes, including "TEACHERS", scripture, 1 Corinthians 12:28 "And God hath set some in the church, first apostles, secondarily prophets, thirdly teachers, after that miracles, then gifts of healings, helps, governments, diversities of tongues."

and that word, "SET", is the Greek,
G5087 τίθημι tithemi (tiy'-thee-miy) v.
θέω theo (the'-ō) [an alternate in certain tenses]
1. to place.
2. (properly) to lay in a passive or horizontal posture.
{in the widest application, literally and figuratively; differs from G2476, which properly denotes an upright and active position, while G2749 is properly reflexive and utterly prostrate}
[a prolonged form of a primary theo theh'-o (which is used only as alternate in certain tenses)]
KJV: + advise, appoint, bow, commit, conceive, give, X kneel down, lay (aside, down, up), make, ordain, purpose, put, set (forth), settle, sink down

this same word is used in the ordination of Paul as a preacher, 1 Timothy 2:7 "Whereunto I am ordained a preacher, and an apostle, (I speak the truth in Christ, and lie not;) a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and verity."

PICJAG,
101G
 

101G

Banned
Apr 1, 2021
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if one disagree, then there is only one thing, prove me wrong, 1 Thessalonians 5:21 "Prove all things; hold fast that which is good."

I believe I have defended myself by the scriptures,

PICJAG,
101G
 

Truth7t7

Well-known member
May 19, 2020
7,685
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if one disagree, then there is only one thing, prove me wrong, 1 Thessalonians 5:21 "Prove all things; hold fast that which is good."

I believe I have defended myself by the scriptures,

PICJAG,
101G
Women are to remain silent in the church, let alone being a Bishop/Pastor/Deacon

You aren't changing Gods words below, or my opinion of them, simple :)

1 Corinthians 14:33-35KJV
33 For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.
34 Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience as also saith the law.
35 And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.
 

Diakonos

Well-known member
Jan 19, 2019
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Anacortes, WA
I thought I responded to that in a previous post. I don't believe those are Paul's words, which makes your question moot.
You might need to read this more than once...

We have gone down quite the rabbit hole, challenging many premises along the way. But to bring things back to the reason we are here...
When I exhaustively defined the connective conjunction ("for") of 1 Tim 2:12 and 1 Tim 2:13-14, the conversation went in this direction:
I don't accept the simplistic interpretation, because, to me, it doesn't make sense.
It may not make sense....to you. Does it have to make sense for you to accept it?
I then went on to see if you have to understand commandments from God in order to accept them. I chose a relevant commandment to this discussion (to respond to your hermeneutic and bring us back to the topic at hand):
2 Tim 2:12 is instruction for us. It wasn't just Paul's personal preference; it was imperatively given to the entire church by the Holy Spirit. In his corresponding conversation in 1 Cor 14:34-37, he calls this "the Lord's commandment", entailing a universal (not cultural) significance. And this also clarifies that it is not merely "instruction"...but a commandment.
Your inclusion of "(not cultural)" seems to be a corrective comment on my position, which is not a "merely cultural" argument at all.
This issue of women teaching men is a theological issue. And...it was also culturally relevant in the 1st century. They are not mutually exclusive. So the fact that a certain cultural atmosphere may have existed, does not negate the theological angle of this issue. "I do not allow women to teach men...because Adam was created first, and the woman was deceived."
You have not responded to this.
Since you appear to believe that Paul's "command" in 1 Corinthians 14 is clear and straightforward, you should have no trouble identifying the passage in "the law" which "also saith" that women shall be in submission and be silent. Paul knew the Law very well, after all.
Non-Sequitur. But I decided to consider the challenge (still considering it)...
[If I tell you where in the Law Paul is referencing in 1 Cor 14, will that satisfy you in regard to my comment that connects "the commandment of the lord" to "not allowing women to teach men,"?
I would like to know your level of openness before I cast my pearls.]
[If I agree that the cited passage in the Law says what it allegedly says, and if your explanation is rational, then yes.]
As a reminder, you wanted this to remain Biblical and without speculation:
please don't respond with anything that is based on speculation
I agreed to the tone of conversation (after all, this is the "Biblical discussions page") :
Sounds good. And to make it fair, if you don't agree with my reference, then you should point out the reference you think it is. It's not right (or logical) to say someone's using the wrong reference if the accuser doesn't know the right one. I.e., I will only respond Biblically, without speculations...if you only respond Biblically, without speculations.
You "liked" this comment, but then removed your "like" for some reason.
[I don't believe such a reference exists because I have never found a passage that says that women are to subject themselves...]
Paul may have not had a single passage in mind, but rather an overarching principle he understood from the Law (which could be a reference to the torah or the entire tanak). Also, he is obviously echoing the Law, not quoting it. As one who was under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, the apostle doesn't have to clarify the Biblical source(s) he had in mind in order for us to accept it.
Paul was a master of the Law. I am sure he had better insight and was able to point out principles that you may never identify. I will let you agree with me on Paul's superior knowledge of the Law. (again)
Paul knew the Law very well, after all
...who knows...maybe The Holy Spirit pointed something out that Paul didn't even know about the Law (again, which can mean the torah or the tenak). The possible explanations are endless. But regardless of the explanation, we do have to deal with the text.
I disagree. Because there is no specific passage that says or implies what verse 34 says, and because the general teaching of the Law does not require women to subject themselves or be silent, I don't accept that explanation.
You don't have to accept anyone's explanation. You have to accept what has been written...unless...you have evidence that what is written is not, in fact, "the commandment of the Lord". Let's see if you have any evidence...
In a nutshell, I believe (as do many) that Paul was quoting a letter sent to him by the Corinthians. He makes reference to it several times throughout his letter.
;
[Here's my suspicion, unconfirmed at this point...

Verses 34-35 were not written by Paul, but quoted by him, likely from the letter written to him...
...Of course, this stands in direct contradiction to the traditional interpretation, but in my view, it makes far better sense...]
After all this, I have 3 things to say (to end this rabbit trail and return to the original subject):
1. The linchpin of your position (that 1 Corinthians 14:4-35 is something Paul is quoting and not "the commandment of the Lord") hangs on an unconfirmed suspicion. It's irrelevant and incredibly insulting to the Holy Spirit.
2. Every time I pin your position down and force you to deal with the simple, obvious Scripture (indicated by the green text above), your hermeneutic is that something has to make sense to you before you can accept it. (hence the red text above). My friend, the Holy Spirit will never teach you anything new if you close your mind this way.
3. For a moment, let's ignore that Paul connected authority with origination more than once (1 Cor 11), and explain to me the definition of the connecting conjunction "for" between 1 Tim 2:12 and 1 Tim 2:13-14. Your "explanation" (post# 943) contains no exegetical analysis of the word "for". It may not seem logical to you (because you don't agree with the obvious conclusion), but what Paul says in 1 Tim 2 is true, just as are the rest of His inspired writings. Every word is true, including the word "for"...
I am well aware of what "for" means.
Then go ahead...Tell me what "for" means, contextually in
1 Tim 2:12-14.
 
Mar 23, 2021
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No sir. I am not saying that at all.

I said...........
"I agree that women can teach, pray and worship and do all things, except Pastor a church either alone or as a co-pastor with her husband. "

If there were not women who taght children's classes, and other women, there were not be a church today.
...and therefore no need for pastors of either gender.
 

2ndTimothyGroup

Well-known member
Feb 20, 2021
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When a woman teaches the Truth to someone who has never believed and they receive Eternal Life . . . this is a wonderful and glorious thing to God!

I agree with Christ, that there is neither male nor female (in Him). And since this is True, especially because the Law had been lifted from all of Christ's Children . . . I have always found it perplexing that Paul would teach that women ought to be silent in "church."
 

Angela53510

Senior Member
Jan 24, 2011
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When a woman teaches the Truth to someone who has never believed and they receive Eternal Life . . . this is a wonderful and glorious thing to God!

I agree with Christ, that there is neither male nor female (in Him). And since this is True, especially because the Law had been lifted from all of Christ's Children . . . I have always found it perplexing that Paul would teach that women ought to be silent in "church."

There is a very historical reason why he said that. Women of that era were generally not allowed to learn, to read, or other things to enrich their lives. Christianity broke that taboo.

Every Jewish person knew that disciples to a rabbi were to "learn in silence, or more properly, "in quietness." To be a disciple, you had to honour the system, which started with learning in silence.

When women were set free to learn, Paul honoured them by saying they were "to learn in silence." In other words, he was saying, " learn like a disciple to a rabbi!" In silence. So sad people don't understand the context, and the fact that Paul was encouraging women to learn at all. This really was the beginning of the new covenant, which set people free to follow Christ!
 

Truth7t7

Well-known member
May 19, 2020
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There is a very historical reason why he said that. Women of that era were generally not allowed to learn, to read, or other things to enrich their lives. Christianity broke that taboo.

Every Jewish person knew that disciples to a rabbi were to "learn in silence, or more properly, "in quietness." To be a disciple, you had to honour the system, which started with learning in silence.

When women were set free to learn, Paul honoured them by saying they were "to learn in silence." In other words, he was saying, " learn like a disciple to a rabbi!" In silence. So sad people don't understand the context, and the fact that Paul was encouraging women to learn at all. This really was the beginning of the new covenant, which set people free to follow Christ!
Your response is a diversion from Gods words of truth below.

The Holy Spirit, who is the author of the inspired scripture, teaches women are to be silent in the church, and subjected to their husband in learning at home, they are (Commanded) to be obedient :eek:

Its confusion and a shame for women to speak in the church, plain, clear, easy to understand.

It appears the Holy Spirit didnt attend the women's lib movement events and conference, and Gods words aren't going to change anytime soon :)

1 Corinthians 14:33-35KJV
33 For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.
34 Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience as also saith the law.
35 And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
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There is a very historical reason why he said that. Women of that era were generally not allowed to learn, to read, or other things to enrich their lives. Christianity broke that taboo.

Every Jewish person knew that disciples to a rabbi were to "learn in silence, or more properly, "in quietness." To be a disciple, you had to honour the system, which started with learning in silence.

When women were set free to learn, Paul honoured them by saying they were "to learn in silence." In other words, he was saying, " learn like a disciple to a rabbi!" In silence. So sad people don't understand the context, and the fact that Paul was encouraging women to learn at all. This really was the beginning of the new covenant, which set people free to follow Christ!
Sounds like a political religious message sent by denominational indoctrination.

Secular humanism on full display.

Paul wrote what the Holy Spirit directed him to write.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
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I have always found it perplexing that Paul would teach that women ought to be silent in "church."
No. There is nothing perplexing about it. Paul ties it right back to the fact that Eve was deceived.

Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection. But I suffer [allow] not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence. For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression. (1 Tim 2:11-14)

A superficial reading might lead someone to conclude that when Paul says "I" this is his personal opinion. But Peter tells us very clearly that all of Paul's epistles are Scripture, so it is the Holy Spirit who directed Paul to make this statement as it is written.

Also, when Paul says that "Adam was first formed" it implies that the woman was created for the man, not vice versa. And that is also why Christian women are commanded to cover their heads during worship (1 Cor 11), to indicate that they are under the authority of their husbands. These things are not being taught in many churches.

Eve's disobedience brought a curse on women, and a part of that curse was (1) they were to be in submission to their own husbands and (2) they were forbidden to preach, teach, or usurp authority within the local church, since that would give them authority over men. Evidently they would also be subjected to great pain during childbirth.

Unto the woman he said, I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children; and thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee. (Gen 3:16)

It is primarily because of "Evangelical Feminism" that women began to push for inclusion in the leadership of churches, and many men did not have the guts to say that is totally unacceptable to God.
 

cv5

Well-known member
Nov 20, 2018
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When a woman teaches the Truth to someone who has never believed and they receive Eternal Life . . . this is a wonderful and glorious thing to God!

I agree with Christ, that there is neither male nor female (in Him). And since this is True, especially because the Law had been lifted from all of Christ's Children . . . I have always found it perplexing that Paul would teach that women ought to be silent in "church."
It's only perplexing if you don't have ears to hear. If you do Paul comes through clear as a bell.
 

cv5

Well-known member
Nov 20, 2018
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You might need to read this more than once...

We have gone down quite the rabbit hole, challenging many premises along the way. But to bring things back to the reason we are here...
When I exhaustively defined the connective conjunction ("for") of 1 Tim 2:12 and 1 Tim 2:13-14, the conversation went in this direction:



I then went on to see if you have to understand commandments from God in order to accept them. I chose a relevant commandment to this discussion (to respond to your hermeneutic and bring us back to the topic at hand):


You have not responded to this.
Non-Sequitur. But I decided to consider the challenge (still considering it)...

As a reminder, you wanted this to remain Biblical and without speculation:

I agreed to the tone of conversation (after all, this is the "Biblical discussions page") :
You "liked" this comment, but then removed your "like" for some reason.

Paul was a master of the Law. I am sure he had better insight and was able to point out principles that you may never identify. I will let you agree with me on Paul's superior knowledge of the Law. (again)
...who knows...maybe The Holy Spirit pointed something out that Paul didn't even know about the Law (again, which can mean the torah or the tenak). The possible explanations are endless. But regardless of the explanation, we do have to deal with the text.
You don't have to accept anyone's explanation. You have to accept what has been written...unless...you have evidence that what is written is not, in fact, "the commandment of the Lord". Let's see if you have any evidence...
;


After all this, I have 3 things to say (to end this rabbit trail and return to the original subject):
1. The linchpin of your position (that 1 Corinthians 14:4-35 is something Paul is quoting and not "the commandment of the Lord") hangs on an unconfirmed suspicion. It's irrelevant and incredibly insulting to the Holy Spirit.
2. Every time I pin your position down and force you to deal with the simple, obvious Scripture (indicated by the green text above), your hermeneutic is that something has to make sense to you before you can accept it. (hence the red text above). My friend, the Holy Spirit will never teach you anything new if you close your mind this way.
3. For a moment, let's ignore that Paul connected authority with origination more than once (1 Cor 11), and explain to me the definition of the connecting conjunction "for" between 1 Tim 2:12 and 1 Tim 2:13-14. Your "explanation" (post# 943) contains no exegetical analysis of the word "for". It may not seem logical to you (because you don't agree with the obvious conclusion), but what Paul says in 1 Tim 2 is true, just as are the rest of His inspired writings. Every word is true, including the word "for"...

Then go ahead...Tell me what "for" means, contextually in 1 Tim 2:12-14.
Well done young fellow. Keep up the good work.
 

Major

Active member
Dec 12, 2020
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...and therefore no need for pastors of either gender.
And that is NOT a comment rooted in Scriptures.

PASTOR/SHEPARD is the term used with the spiritual leader, or shepherd, of local churches, often used interchangeably with the words "bishop," "elder," and "overseer" used in 1 Timothy 3:1-7 and Titus 1:5-9.

Ephesians 4:11 mentions "pastors" (KJV/NIV) or "shepherds" (ESV) as a role for those who serve as leaders in the church.

In 1 Peter 5:1-3, we find the three terms bishop, elder, and overseer used interchangeably to describe the work of the spiritual shepherds of a church:.........
"So I exhort the elders among you, as a fellow elder and a witness of the sufferings of Christ, as well as a partaker in the glory that is going to be revealed: shepherd the flock of God that is among you, exercising oversight, not under compulsion, but willingly, as God would have you; not for shameful gain, but eagerly; not domineering over those in your charge, but being examples to the flock."

The Bible clearly speaks of the important calling and requirements of elders in Scripture. Elders are synonymous with pastors in the New Testament, with the word "pastor" emphasizing the shepherding role of the calling. It is a role to equip God's people for maturity and works of service and demands the highest integrity and an attitude of service to others.
 

cv5

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Nov 20, 2018
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You have been told already that the male nouns and pronouns do not exist in the Greek of this passage, with the sole exception of husband. You are arguing from a position of stubborn, willful ignorance, and you are wrong.
Unnecessary. The office of bishop would always be male.
 

Major

Active member
Dec 12, 2020
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Unnecessary. The office of bishop would always be male.
Yes.....it certainly should be.

I very rarely agree with the Catholic church, but in this case they got it right!
 

Major

Active member
Dec 12, 2020
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First thanks for the reply, second, I'm not debating anyone. I simply believe the scriptures, and not a man's interpertation of them. it just amaze me to see how people reading the same words, and without researching, and applying bibical concepts, arrive at different understanding.
it is clear that what we in the west calls offices is actually a work, which God do through his body. and this work is manifested in his Spiritual "Gifts". and it is clear, the first Gift listed in 1 Corinthians 12:8, is the Pastoral Gifts, "For to one is given by the Spirit the word of wisdom; to another the word of knowledge by the same Spirit;". and God's gifts are of no respect of person.

and if the members of his body is neither male and female, then one would know that it is God who ordains in his Chursh, and not men.

PICJAG,
101G
You are very welcome.

Actually there is NO debate to be done at all.

God said in 1 Tinothy 3:1-2............
"This is a true saying, If a man desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work. 2A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;"

The Word of God is not open for debate.

It is either accepted or it is rejected.

The choice is yours.
 

cv5

Well-known member
Nov 20, 2018
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You have been told already that the male nouns and pronouns do not exist in the Greek of this passage, with the sole exception of husband. You are arguing from a position of stubborn, willful ignorance, and you are wrong.
There are no male nouns/pronouns here either. Again completely unnecessary.
1 Tim 3:5
(For if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?)
 

cv5

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Nov 20, 2018
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What we want to do is operate in the Spirit by following the motivation of Love. This contribution to the body of Christ that I have must come from the Spirit. Or rather, It can ONLY come from the Spirit. I have nothing to offer that will result in the building of the body of Christ in unity and fellowship with the Son and each other that does NOT come from the Spirit.

This concept is easy to elude us if we read this chapter too fast or if we try to interpret it in the context of modern theological debates about continuationism vs ceasationism.

What Paul intended in using the many members, many gifts but all by One Spirit analogy was to show the importance of each part and this starts with me.

To think that I am important is no sin, but to thing that I am more important than another is. There is no virtue in going to far in the opposite direction and think that I am not important.

We are to think in reference to the SPIRIT working in us, and not in our own qualifications. The Spirit working in the woman, the Spirit working in the man, the most important thing to remember is that it is ONE SPIRIT and He is going to manifest his gifts in us as he DETERMINES. When that happens, we don't need to defend ourselves, He is sufficient to defend Himself.

My main goal here is to make sure that it is the Spirit working in me. Here I am Lord, use me for your glory. Step out in faith when the Spirit prompts you. To do this requires faith and faith overcomes fear.
Commandments, doctrine and order of the Church comes first. Everything else follows. Deviations are to be addressed and corrected.