A
I understand that the context of those being addressed are the beloved, but the context of what is being addressed is judgement. Which begs the question, do you believe in double predestination? Here's what happens with this verse is those that hold to Biblical election read as to the beloved, which is truth. Those that believe God died for everyone and is waiting for them to repent use this verse to prove that point of free will, which is not the point either. It's in the middle. Verse one sets up the context of who it's addressed to, verses 2-3 is the context of what is being addressed. Verse 4 they mock, verses 5-7 the facts they overlooked. Verse 8 what the beloved should not overlook, that the Lord is outside of time, a thousand years ago is the same as today.
Verse 9 has three parts of the overall context, the Lord, the beloved and the mockers. Look at how Peter addresses the hears, beloved, you, the mockers, they. Verse 11 he addresses the beloved again as you. Why would the Holy Spirit change the direct reference of you and beloved to any and all? Why didn't He keep with the context and say "towards you, not wishing that you would perish, but that you would come to repentance." The general terms of any and all is referring to they, not you or beloved, how He has always addressed in that manner in this context. I understand that the immediate context seems to be all to the beloved, but the context of the chapter help understand that, all references to the hears are beloved and you, the subject of the context are referred to as they, any and all.
Does this mean that any and all can come to the Lord? No, unless the Father draw them, because it's His desire, not His will. His will is always brought about. If you take II Peter 3:9 and I Timothy 2:4 to read about the elect, are you trying to show that the Lord predestines for hell? Because He had no desire that the wicked be saved. Not very verse in an English translation is going to be a clear reference to election, because it's a translation and it's in English one of the driest languages there is on earth. Angela reads Greek and she believes in election, so why would she say it about the mockers and not the elect, if she believe in election? We can't read the Bible with glasses of election on, we believe what we read, we don't read what we believe, that's not good.
Believe me I read this verse and I Timothy 2:4 as being about the elect or all types of people being elect. When a sister here said that those verses did nutmeat that I did a full study on both in the immediate context and in the overall context of the Bible. That's when I realized that I was viewing these wrong and with the Ezekiel verses it confirmed for me that, God's desire is that all come to repentance, but His will is that the elect will come to repentance. There's no desire, willingness, wanting, wishing or any of the sort when it comes to the elect, because He is going to bring it to pass, because it's the will of His purpose, not something that He would like to happen, it will happen, because He will bring it to pass.
Verse 9 has three parts of the overall context, the Lord, the beloved and the mockers. Look at how Peter addresses the hears, beloved, you, the mockers, they. Verse 11 he addresses the beloved again as you. Why would the Holy Spirit change the direct reference of you and beloved to any and all? Why didn't He keep with the context and say "towards you, not wishing that you would perish, but that you would come to repentance." The general terms of any and all is referring to they, not you or beloved, how He has always addressed in that manner in this context. I understand that the immediate context seems to be all to the beloved, but the context of the chapter help understand that, all references to the hears are beloved and you, the subject of the context are referred to as they, any and all.
Does this mean that any and all can come to the Lord? No, unless the Father draw them, because it's His desire, not His will. His will is always brought about. If you take II Peter 3:9 and I Timothy 2:4 to read about the elect, are you trying to show that the Lord predestines for hell? Because He had no desire that the wicked be saved. Not very verse in an English translation is going to be a clear reference to election, because it's a translation and it's in English one of the driest languages there is on earth. Angela reads Greek and she believes in election, so why would she say it about the mockers and not the elect, if she believe in election? We can't read the Bible with glasses of election on, we believe what we read, we don't read what we believe, that's not good.
Believe me I read this verse and I Timothy 2:4 as being about the elect or all types of people being elect. When a sister here said that those verses did nutmeat that I did a full study on both in the immediate context and in the overall context of the Bible. That's when I realized that I was viewing these wrong and with the Ezekiel verses it confirmed for me that, God's desire is that all come to repentance, but His will is that the elect will come to repentance. There's no desire, willingness, wanting, wishing or any of the sort when it comes to the elect, because He is going to bring it to pass, because it's the will of His purpose, not something that He would like to happen, it will happen, because He will bring it to pass.
So please clarify, is "all" about only God's elect from all people or All of humanity?
I think you are making a distinction between God's desire and God's will.
In that God's will, will happen. God's desire does not necessarily have to happen, but God's intentions are clear
Just making sure I am not "reading into" what you are saying.