Can the Trinity be Biblically proven?

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valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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Review the link I posted in #341 for the Biblical description of God, that fully supports my post on the critique of Mt.28:19
Your arguments are invalid.

and 1 Jn.5:7, in which the former is an alteration and the latter, an additive by unscrupulous scribes, defending their false beliefs, originally perpetrated by a few of the church fathers and the RCC who bought them.
while I agree that 1 John 5.7 was not part of the original text, I disagree totally with your suggestion of motive. The words were probably originally added as a note to the Latin text, and were later incorporated into it by accident

As a qualified teacher of the Bible
qualified by whom?

my studies and research cover a period of more than 70 years,
it shows you are past it

and I don't post anything that isn't inspired by the Holy Spirit, pertaining to the Scriptures.
a sure proof of not being. The inspiration of the Holy Spirit is not so easily obtained and is not so certain. Besides the Holy Spirit glorifies the Lord Jesus Christ and His Godhead,
 
May 3, 2016
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There isn't a single passage you have quoted above that supports a triune Godhead in any way, except Mt.28:19. Which in and of itself, is an alteration, making it a statement Jesus would have never made.




Quasar92
You Quasar92,anti-trinitarian, think you have greater authority than Jesus Our God and the Holy Spirit by saying:
"Matthew 28:19... a statement Jesus would have never made."
All the intelligent New Testament Greek scholars who were and are born-again, have said this verse was 100% spoken by Jesus. Far more importantly, the Holy Spirit and Apostle Matthew declare Jesus spoke this.

Just look again at the utterly monstrous thing you said about Jesus's words. A terrible monstrosity . Anti-Trinitarians like you want to rewrite and delete the words of Jesus Christ. This is an all too clear Fact.

Everyone can see by your words that deep in your heart and soul you think you have greater authority than the Apostle Matthew, the Holy Spirit and our God Jesus.

You have definitely proven you stand against the words of the Creator Jesus. Are you proud of yourself?

I pray you recant .

Jesus suffered so much for us -so much.

I love you Jesus and our Father and Holy Spirit. I praise you forever. I love you church.








 
J

jaybird88

Guest
You Quasar92,anti-trinitarian, think you have greater authority than Jesus Our God and the Holy Spirit by saying:
"Matthew 28:19... a statement Jesus would have never made."
All the intelligent New Testament Greek scholars who were and are born-again, have said this verse was 100% spoken by Jesus. Far more importantly, the Holy Spirit and Apostle Matthew declare Jesus spoke this.

Just look again at the utterly monstrous thing you said about Jesus's words. A terrible monstrosity . Anti-Trinitarians like you want to rewrite and delete the words of Jesus Christ. This is an all too clear Fact.

Everyone can see by your words that deep in your heart and soul you think you have greater authority than the Apostle Matthew, the Holy Spirit and our God Jesus.

You have definitely proven you stand against the words of the Creator Jesus. Are you proud of yourself?

I pray you recant .

Jesus suffered so much for us -so much.

I love you Jesus and our Father and Holy Spirit. I praise you forever. I love you church.

neither Jesus nor the 12 given authority by Jesus ever made trinity creeds. these creeds were made by roman councils. do these councils have higher authority than Jesus and the 12?
i am not anti trinity and i dont lead or teach others to turn away from what they believe but i dont care for Christians calling other Christians anti Christians because they dont follow or proclaim doctrines of man. doctrines have their place and can be helpful but when they cause division, confusion (who is the author of confusion?) and conflict, they are being taken way to far. this is exactly what Jesus rebuked the pharisees for. read about the ritual washing, the pharisees were displeased at Jesus when He did not wash before a meal, they told Him He broke a law, but it was a tradition of man, there is no law of our Lord to wash before meals. if you want to have a tradition to wash before meals, no problem, when you present the tradition as a law commanded by the Almighty, thats a problem. as mankind we have no authority to make such laws.
 
Aug 19, 2016
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1. Your arguments are invalid.



2. while I agree that 1 John 5.7 was not part of the original text, I disagree totally with your suggestion of motive. The words were probably originally added as a note to the Latin text, and were later incorporated into it by accident



3. qualified by whom?



4. it shows you are past it



5. a sure proof of not being. The inspiration of the Holy Spirit is not so easily obtained and is not so certain. Besides the Holy Spirit glorifies the Lord Jesus Christ and His Godhead,


1. What you are rationalizing is, the Bible is not valid then.

2. Baloney! What other motive would there have been, other than the RCC claim in those days, salvation was only possible through belief in the doctrine of the Trinity, in the Catholic church.

3. Prairie Bible Institute, in Three Hills, Alberta, Canada and Liberty University, in Lynchburg, VA.

4. Yes, that;s right, I'm past 70, I'll be 93 in December. I'm also a WWII vet, who spent two years in the Pacific, with the USAAF Air Corp, in active duty during the war.

5. "A sure proof of not being," what? By what authority do you assume the right to judge the works of a qualified teacher of the Bible with meaningless opinion? If you have an argument with the contents of something I posted, then do so with Scriptural support to verify its validity.


Quasar92
 
Aug 19, 2016
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Well, okay I didn't get ya quite right.. but Jesus was around since the beginning with the Father. Fleshly form.. yes.. with the virgin Mary.. but God the Son.. all things were made thru Him with the Father.


That's right, Jesus was with the Father in the beginning, the firstborn over all creation, in Cl.1:15 brought forth by the Father, in Pr.8:22-25. See also Jn.14:28 and 17:3.


Quasar92
 
Aug 19, 2016
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Quaser 92 and Jaybird..

If Jesus is lesser than the Father..

Jesus is not God..

there is where you are denying Jesus' deity.

Full stop.


Baloney! The Father called Jesus God, in Ps.45:6-7, Heb.1:8=9, and Ps.110:1. God, who is the Holy Spirit, produced Jesus by the virgin Mary, and became His/the Father, in Mt.1:20 and in Lk.1:35, when Jesus became the Son of god/God the Son.


Quasar92
 
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J

jaybird88

Guest
You Quasar92,anti-trinitarian, think you have greater authority than Jesus Our God and the Holy Spirit by saying:
"Matthew 28:19... a statement Jesus would have never made."
All the intelligent New Testament Greek scholars who were and are born-again, have said this verse was 100% spoken by Jesus. Far more importantly, the Holy Spirit and Apostle Matthew declare Jesus spoke this.
Mat 28 19 is a legit passage, the problem comes from the very end "Father, Son, Holy Spirit". this does not sync with the rest of the bible where they baptize in the name of Jesus. why would the Apostle with authority from Jesus Himself disobey this command.
the next problem comes from all the early church fathers that quote Mat 28 19, every time its quoted they seem to leave off the end as if its not there, why would they do this?
next problem comes from the earliest trinity debates, like we are having now. mat 28 19 is always one of the most quoted passages defending the trinity doctrine, yet in the very first trinity debates, its never used.
its most likely the end of the passage was added years later being as it was never used in the early church and the Apostle would not have disobeyed what Jesus instructed.
 
Aug 19, 2016
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Valiant said:
The Father made clear to all who were willing to receive it that the Son was co-eternal and co-equal with the Father.



Please provide the Scriptures supporting your above claim.


Quasar92
 
Aug 19, 2016
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You Quasar92,anti-trinitarian, think you have greater authority than Jesus Our God and the Holy Spirit by saying:
"Matthew 28:19... a statement Jesus would have never made."
All the intelligent New Testament Greek scholars who were and are born-again, have said this verse was 100% spoken by Jesus. Far more importantly, the Holy Spirit and Apostle Matthew declare Jesus spoke this.

Just look again at the utterly monstrous thing you said about Jesus's words. A terrible monstrosity . Anti-Trinitarians like you want to rewrite and delete the words of Jesus Christ. This is an all too clear Fact.

Everyone can see by your words that deep in your heart and soul you think you have greater authority than the Apostle Matthew, the Holy Spirit and our God Jesus.

You have definitely proven you stand against the words of the Creator Jesus. Are you proud of yourself?

I pray you recant .

Jesus suffered so much for us -so much.

I love you Jesus and our Father and Holy Spirit. I praise you forever. I love you church.





Before you make dogmatic claims pertaining to the Word of God, rozz, the proper procedure is to know and understand both sides of an argument. Review my post #407 on this thread, that supports my view by the Scriptures. Nowhere else in the Bible will you find statements pertaining to baptism in the triune names, other than in Mt.28:19. Review Mt.3:11 to learn who baptizes us with the Holy Spirit, when we believe/receive Jesus as our personal Lord and Savior. See also in Acts 2, where Peter advises the converts to be baptized in the name of Jesus. In addition, what is false about the words in Mt.28:19, is Jesus allegedly commanding His disciples to baptize in the name f the Father, and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, when Jesus knows, God is the Holy Spirit, according to Jn.4:24; 2 Cor.3:17-18, and Father, one person, not two, according to the Scriptures.


Quasar92
 
May 3, 2016
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what is false about the words in Mt.28:19, is Jesus allegedly commanding His disciples to baptize in the name f the Father, and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,


Quasar92[/QUOTE]
Quasar92,you,a non-Trinitarian say:"What is false about the words in Matthew 28:19, is Jesus allegedly commanding his disciples to baptize in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit."

All the best New Testament Greek scholars have always held that Jesus said exactly what is in Mt. 28:19. More significantly so does the Apostle Matthew. The Holy Spirit confirms this to the Christian.
You try to usurp their -including Jesus's- authority by the words I quoted you saying. Can you not see this?
I repeat: recant your sinful and nonsensical
position on Mt.28:19.

And you do not have a degree from Liberty University.


 
Aug 19, 2016
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what is false about the words in Mt.28:19, is Jesus allegedly commanding His disciples to baptize in the name f the Father, and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,


Quasar92
Quasar92,you,a non-Trinitarian say:"What is false about the words in Matthew 28:19, is Jesus allegedly commanding his disciples to baptize in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit."

All the best New Testament Greek scholars have always held that Jesus said exactly what is in Mt. 28:19. More significantly so does the Apostle Matthew. The Holy Spirit confirms this to the Christian.
You try to usurp their -including Jesus's- authority by the words I quoted you saying. Can you not see this?
I repeat: recant your sinful and nonsensical
position on Mt.28:19.

And you do not have a degree from Liberty University.


[/QUOTE]



There is no point in discussing Biblical issues with someone who knows it all. Especially at the advanced age of 18. In addition to the fact they think the larger the fonts are, i.e. the louder they can yell, the more effective, their views will be. But rather, it shows how immature they are.

You have already had my response, in post #449, with the Scriptural support refuting you! Either prove any part of it is false, or your views are.

I have a Masters from Liberty Home Bible Institute, and my professor for the course I mastered in was Dr. Harold Wilmington


Quasar92.
 

bluto

Senior Member
Aug 4, 2016
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Ok quasar, I have not forgotten about you. And your right, my argument is a prime case of a syllogism because it cannot be refuted. The Bible does identify the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit as God. Not "a gods," not "three gods," and surely not three made up pagan gods, but the ONE GOD. And if you could refute the syllogism you would have done it but instead your asking me "why" questions which I will be happy to address.

First of all your question? "Then explain to me why the Bible teaches God is the Holy Spirit and His title is Father? One person!" Your question is an "assumption" because the Bible does not teach the Father is the person of the Holy Spirit. If the Father is the Holy Spirit (and you said He is on the basis that God the Father is Holy) then there would be no need for the Bible to distinguish the Holy Spirit from the Father. One would only see the same continued metaphorical applications being used all the time. God the Father is never identified in the Bible as the person of the Holy Spirit.

Here are some examples of what I mean. Genesis 1:2, "And the earth was formless and vlid, and darkness was over the surface of the deep, and THE SPIRIT of God was moving over the surface of the waters." Notice the rest of the verses say, "Then God" said or did this or that. Then at Acts 5:3,4, "But Peter said, "Ananias why has Satan filled your heart to lie to the Holy Spirit?" Why does it not just say, "why did Satan fill your heart to lie to God?" And at vs4, "While it remained unsold did it not remain your own? And after it was sold was it not under your control? You have not lied to men but to God." In other words, the Holy Spirit is idneitifed as God but not as God the Father as you errantly teach.

Or anothe example! John 14:23, "Jesus answered and said to him, "If anyone loves Me, he will keep My word, and My Father will love him, and WE will come to him, and make OUR abode with him." So here you have God the Father and God the Son who will make their abode with them and no mention of the Holy Spirit until vs26, "But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, WHOM THE FATHER WILL SEND in My name, He will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all that I said to you."

So quasar, if the Father is the Holy Spirit why would have to send Himself? Why are God the Father and the Holy Spirit distinguished? I can you many examples but hopefully you get the point. Now to your second question? It is true that God the Son and God the Father are two distinct persons. I'm not argueing that point. What I'm telling you is the fact that the Son preexisted His incarnation. Not as "separate" persons as you said but "distinct" persons. There is a difference between the meaning of the two words.

You yourself admit that Jesus Christ is the Son of God and God the Son but the rub comes from you saying "Jesus became human at His incarnation." How does that preclude Jesus Christ who is God from preexisting His incarnation. What if I was to prove to you that the angel of the Lord in the Old Testament is the preincarnate Jesus Christ? But for now let me address your last point. "All men who produce children of their own, have the title of father! With that having been said, why don't Trinitarians make the claim that Jesus and the Son are TWO persons instead of just one, as they so they do Almighty God, the Holy Spirit, and the Father?"

I could not agree with you more quasar. It is a universal law that all sons bear the same nature and their father. Since the Father of Jelsus Christ is God the Father then Jesus' nature is that of Deity. As well, since Mary is the mother of Jesus He has a second nature which is "human being." This is one of the reasons Jesus Christ referred to Himself as the "Son of Man" and as the "Son of God." Now, you cannot split up "natures" because Jesus Christ is one person, not two. In fact, He is the only one that has two natures as I explained.

At John 1:1, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was WITH God, and the Word was God." That word "with" means that the Word/Logos is "with" somebody else other than Himself and He is identified as God. At verse 14 that same person who is the
Word/Jesus Christ became flesh/human. One persons with two natures. This is not hard to understand because this is what the Bible teaches. :eek:

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto

 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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[/COLOR]Please provide the Scriptures supporting your above claim.


Quasar92
Jesus is shown to be coequal and co-eternal with the Father in many places

Jesus said, 'That all may honour the Son AS they honour the Father. He who does not honour the Son (as they honour the Father), does not honour the Father Who sent Him.' John 5.23


“For as the Father has life in Himself, so has He given the Son to have life in Himself” John 5.26


Jesus answered them, “MY Father is working still and I am working.” This was why the Jews sought the more to kill Him, because He not only broke the Sabbath, but also called God His own Father, making Himself equal with God John 5.17-18


“Truly, truly I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM” John 8.58


Philip said to Him, “Lord, show us the Father and we will be satisfied.” Jesus said to him, “Have I been with you so long, and yet you do not know Me, Philip? He who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, Show us the Father. John 14.9


“And this is life eternal, that they may know you the only true God and Jesus Christ Whom You have sent – and now, Father, glorify Me with the glory which I had with You before the world was” (John 17.5)


John said, 'In the beginning was the WORD, and the WORD was face to face with God, and What God was the Word was, – and the Word was made flesh and dwelt among us” (John 1.1, 14).


The risen Jesus said, “Baptising them in the (one) Name (YHWH) of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,” Matthew 28.19


And for us there is ONE GOD, the Father, from Whom are all things and for Whom we exist, and ONE LORD through Whom are all things and through Whom we exist 1 Corinthians 8.6 (in contrast with the many gods and lords)


He is the IMAGE of the invisible God, the firstBORN before the whole of creation Colossians 1.15


In Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead in bodily form Colossians 2.9


Awaiting our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of our great God and Saviour Jesus Christ Titus 2.13


When the goodness and kindness of God our Saviour appeared, – which He poured out upon us through Jesus Christ our Saviour Titus 3.4, 6


In the righteousness of our God and Saviour Jesus Christ – of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ 2 Peter 1.1 ,11 (exactly parallel in the Greek).


Who being the outshining of His glory and the exact representation of His substance Heb 1.3


He is the SON in contrast to all angels Heb 1.4 following.


Thomas called Him, “my LORD and my God”. John 20.28
 

bluto

Senior Member
Aug 4, 2016
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Baloney! The Father called Jesus God, in Ps.45:6-7, Heb.1:8=9, and Ps.110:1. God, who is the Holy Spirit, produced Jesus by the virgin Mary, and became His/the Father, in Mt.1:20 and in Lk.1:35, when Jesus became the Son of god/God the Son.


Quasar92
Baloney! The Father called Jesus God, in Ps.45:6-7, Heb.1:8=9, and Ps.110:1. God, who is the Holy Spirit, produced Jesus by the virgin Mary, and became His/the Father, in Mt.1:20 and in Lk.1:35, when Jesus became the Son of god/God the Son.


Quasar92
Right quasar, the Father called Jesus Christ God so why are they not equal and co-eternal? I understand where you are mixed up. You think that the Son came on the scene when He incarnated because the Father created Him and His body, therefore He did not exist before that time. But what you don't understand is the fact that the Son was "SENT" and not created. Isaiah 9:6, "For a child will be born to us, a son will be given to us:" That phrase, "a son will be given to us." means that He preexisted His incarnation. And His titles in the verse back up that claim. "Mighty God, Eternal Father" etc.

Then you have verses like John 6:62, "What then if you should behold the Son of Man ascending WHERE HE WAS BEFORE?" Or John 17:5, "And now glorify Thou Me TOGETHER with Thyself, Father, with the glory WHICH I HAD WITH THEE BEFORE THE WORLD WAS." Then there is John 3:13, "And no one has ascended from heaven, BUT HE WHO DESCENDED FROM HEAVEN, EVEN THE SON OF MAN."

Now I want you to watch this quasar? Notice it says, "EVEN THE SON OF MAN" descended from heaven. This implies His preexistence before His incarnation. And look at John 6:38, "For I have come down from heaven, not to do My will , but the will of Him who sent Me." Who sent the Son from heaven quasar? Secondly, in order to be sent you have to first preexist. If I send one of my daughters to the store she has to have existed first to go to the store.

And lastly, please read the parable of the Vinyard. It is located at Matthew 21:33-46, Mark 12:1-12, and Luke 20:9-19. The landlord is God the Father and what does He do as a last resort? He sends His beloved Son thinking the vinedressers will respect Him. But what do the vinedressers do quasar? :eek:

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
 

williamjordan

Senior Member
Feb 18, 2015
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No, I am not now or ever was a JW. The Bible teaches that Jesus was the FIRSTBORN over all creation in Col.1:15, confirming Pr.8:22-36. My position in the subject is to affirm the teachings in the Bible, not to invent them as has been done in the man made doctrine of the Trinity. Review the following Biblical description of God:

The following thread is theology, pertaining to the Biblical description of God, as it differs from the doctrine of the Trinity. It is not being posted to cause animosity between members in any way, but to seriously study the facts from the Scriptures, with an open mind. Any differences of issues will be responded to when and as posted.It is hard to understand anyone who does not believe that Jesus was/is the Son of God and literally, God the Son, according to Ps.45:6-7, 110:1 and Isa.7:14. How could it be possible for the Holy Spirit to produce the pre-incarnate spirit of Jesus, by the virgin Mary, without receiving the deity of God, as found in Mt.1:20 and in Lk.1:32, 35? To be empowered to give/baptize with the Holy Spirit to all who receive Him as Lord? Mt.3:11, Mk.1:8, Lk.3:16, Jn.1:33, 3:16, 20:21-22, Acts 2:1-3, 1 Jn.3:24 and 1 Jn.4:13. To say nothing of performing 19 noteable miracles of healing the blind, the deaf, people with terminal illness and raising three from the dead? Do you think any ordinary human being could ever do that?

The following is God's description of Himself, directly from the Scriptures.

Let me assure you that I am fully convinced that you all love the Lord! By the same token, you can be equally certain that I love Him too. With that having been said, the following Scriptural contradiction of the doctrine of the Trinity is documented in the following, to seek and correct, the false teachings found in it, that were accepted into the Roman Catholic Church in the 4th century A.D.

1. it is necessary to properly identify God, whom both Jesus, Paul and John have done, in Jn.1:18, 4:24; Rom.1:20; 2 Cor.3:17-18, Col.1:15 and 1 Jn.4:12, when they identify Him as Spirit.

2. God, who is the Spirit, makes it clear that He is also Holy, in Lev.11:44-45; Lev.19:2; Ps.99:3; Ps.99:5; 1 Pet.1:15-16 and in Rev.4:8. Therefore there is no option to the fact that God is the HOLY SPIRIT. [As well as the Father, according to the Scriptures, recorded in 6. below].

3. The fact that God is the Holy Spirit - He is also known as YHWH, Yahweh, Jehovah, Lord, Almighty God - as well as many other names and titles all quite well known to you all.

4.God makes it clear in the OT, He is eternal, that there is no other God but He Himself. "....Before me no God was formed, nor will there be one after me." Isa.43:10. And in Isa.44:6, "....I am the first and I am the last; apart from me there is no God." See also Isa.45:5: "I am the Lord and there is no other," and in Ex.3:14: "I AM WHO I AM."

5. It can be clearly seen from the Scriptures, God is indeed the Holy Spirit. With that having been Scripturally established, what about the origin of the pre-incarnate Jesus, as well as the identity of His Father ?

Beginning in Proverbs 8, pertaining to the attributes of God's Wisdom, I refer specifically to verses 22 through 36, that clearly identify the pre-incarnate spirit of Jesus Christ as the WHO, of the Wisdom of God. [From the NIV].

"The Lord brought me forth as the first of His works, before His deed of old; I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning,

before the world began. When there were no oceans, I was given birth, [Vs 22-24]
when there were no springs abounding with water; before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth, before He made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world. [Vs 24-26]

I was there when He set the heavens in place, when He marked out the horizon on the face of the deep, when He established the clouds above and fixed securly the fountains of the deep, [Vs 27-28]

when He gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep His command, and when He marked out the foundations of the earth. Then I was the craftsman at His side. I was filled with delight day after day, [Vs 29-30]

rejoicing always in His presence, rejoicing in His whole world and delighting in mankind. Now then my sons, listen to me; blessed are those who keep my ways. Listen to my instruction and be wise; do not ignore it. [Vs 30-33]

Blessed is the man who listens to me, watching daily at my doors, waiting at my doorway. For whoever finds me finds life and
receives favor from the Lord. But whoever fails to find me harms himself; all who hate me love death." [Vs 34-36]

That Jesus is the Wisdom [Power and knowledge] of God is made abundantly clear in 1 Cor.1:24 and Col.2:2-3

From the above, the Word of God clearly reveals the pre-incarnate spirit of Jesus Christ was created and is therefore not 'co-eternal' with the Spirit of God, as God stated clearly in Isa.43:10 and 44:6. [Please note: See below as to when Jesus did become the Son of God and literally God the Son] The same passage of Scripture also clearly reveals there are two 'personages' involved, not just one. God, whom the Scriptures reveal is the Holy Spirit, who is the Father and the pre-incarnate Spirit of Jesus Christ.In the KJV, is another example of the pre-incarnate Spirit of Jesus being created, in their translation of Pr.8:22, which reads as follows: "The Lord POSSESSED me in the beginning of His way, before His works of old." In a review of Gen.14:19 and 22, the term POSSESS in both, means CREATOR, i.e., that God CREATED the heavens and the earth, as well as the pre-incarnate Spirit of Jesus Christ, confirming Col.1:15. [Jesus received His deity from His Father as recorded in 6. below].

To further reinforce the Pr.8:22-36 passage, it can also be seen in Col.1:15, that Jesus is/was the FIRSTBORN over all creation. And in vs 18, it is written that He is the FIRSTBORN from the dead. Let it be crystal clear, the term, 'FIRSTBORN' means exactly the same in both verses! It means FIRSTBORN, not of everlasting eternity, but rather, as in Pr.8:22, He was brought forth, as the first of YHWH's works, before the world began.

6. When the Holy Spirit of God overpowered the virgin Mary, she conceived in what became the incarnate Jesus Christ, the only begotten Son of God, several things happened:

A. God, who is the Holy Spirit became the Father of Jesus, as documented in Mt.1:20 and Lk.1:35.

B. The term "Father" is the very same title all men receive after they have produced children of their own, as was the case when God, who is the Holy Spirit produced His only begotten Son, Jesus Christ. Therefore, God who is the Holy Spirit and the Father are one and the same person. Fulfilling the prophecy of God in Ps.2:7, repeated after being fulfilled in Heb.1:5.

C. Jesus immediately received the Holy Spirit and His deity together with the power to give/baptize with the Holy Spirit, confirming Mt.3:11; Mk.1:8; Lk.3:16; Jn.1:33 and Acts 2:1-3. Jesus said, whoever believes in Him is born again, through the Holy Spirit He gives/baptizes with, to those who do, and promises eternal life in: Jn.3:16, Mt.3:11, Mk.1:8, Lk.3:16, Jn.1:33 and Acts 2:1-3. See also Jn.10:27-29, 20:21-22, 1 Jn.3:24 and 1 Jn.4:13.

At this point, we have now seen, the Spirit of God [The Holy Spirit], also known as YHWH, Yahweh, Jehovah, Lord God, God Almighty, etc., is also the Father. We have also seen the Father and the Son are two separate entities who are neither co-eternal nor co-equal. Jesus said the Father is greater than He in Jn.14:28 and greater than all in Jn.10:29.

7. Bringing us to the matter of Jesus remarks about He and the Father being one, that many people fail to comprehend and understand - all pertaining to the spiritual - and have nothing whatever to do with physical aspects in any way. Jesus said He and His Father are one in Jn.10:30 and Jn.17:21-22. In which He meant, as in 17:21-22, that all of us who belong to Him become one, with He and the Father, as He and the Father are one with each other. When you think about that carefully, you realize that we all become a part of the one body of Christ, [And the Father] through belief in Him. Receiving His baptism with the Holy Spirit [Mt.3:11; Mk.1:8; Lk.3:16; Jn.1:33 and Acts 2:1-3], and become a born again Christian [Spiritually], through the one Spirit of God. 1 Cor.12:12-13. But we all retain our own physical, individual identities, in the very same way the Father and the Son do. Two Persons!

Keep in mind, the Spirit of God dwelt within Jesus when He said, "...When you have lifted up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am the one I claim to be AND THAT I DO NOTHING ON MY OWN BUT SPEAK JUST WHAT THE FATHER HAS TAUGHT ME." Jn.8:28 [NIV]. Jesus also stated: "MY FATHER [THE HOLY SPIRIT] LIVES IN ME, DOING HIS WORK," in Jn.14:10. A similar case and point can be found in Lk.22:3, when Satan entered into Judas, whom he then controlled by, who is also spirit, in the same way the Spirit of God controlled what Jesus said and did. But both Jesus and Judas retained their own individuality and identity.

8. The apostles in every epistle in the Bible offer greetings to BOTH THE FATHER AND TO JESUS. If they were only one person, it is quite obvious those greetings would all have been different. By the same token, the Holy Spirit is not mentioned in any of those greetings, because the apostles all knew the Father was/is the Holy Spirit.

9. The Father and the Son are two separate 'personages.' The Spirit of God Fathered His only begotten Son. A father and a son are never only one person. Jesus prayed to the Father incessantly, as in the example of Jn.17:1-26. Jesus commended His Spirit to the Father, Lk.23:46 and the Father raised Jesus from the dead, Rom.10:9 and a number of other places. Jesus ascended, in Acts 1:9 and now sits on the right hand of the Father, Heb.10:12, as well as in other places. All those who participate in the first resurrection, are to be made priests of God and of Jesus, recorded in Rev.20:6. In the new heaven and earth, both the Father and the Son are present in Rev.21:22-23. Neither the terms Holy Spirit or Father are mentioned there, but rather Almighty God, who is the Holy Spirit, together with the Lamb, who is Jesus.

10. Pertaining to the literal description of God - Jesus stated in Jn.17:3 that the FATHER IS THE ONLY TRUE GOD. Clearly inferring that He considered Himself God as well. Otherwise, Jesus would undoubtedly have said His FATHER IS THE ONY GOD, would He not? By the same token, the Father prophecied by calling His Son, God in Ps.45:6-7, [and Lord in] Ps.110:1 and "God is with us," in Isa.7:14. After they were fulfilled, they were repeated in Mt.1:23, 22:44 and in Heb.1:8-9. In Col.1:15, Jesus is called the image of the invisible God. [Though the Father is Pure Spirit, Jesus had a human/physical body [According to Lk.2:6-7; Jn.1:14 and Heb.10:5], later changed to an imperishable, immortal resurrection body, as seen in 1 Cor.15:44,52-54, whose pre-incarnate Spirit was created, according to Pr.8:22-25]. Though there is no question as to Jesus deity, the proper description of God is the following: [As documented in 6. above]

11. ONE TRUE GOD AND JESUS CHRIST, THE ONLY BEGOTTEN SON OF GOD/AND LITERALLY, GOD THE SON [As in Isa.7:14, fulfilled in Mt.1:23]. THEREFORE OUR GODHEAD CONSISTS OF THE FATHER, WHO IS THE HOLY SPIRT AND THE SON, WHO IS JESUS CHRIST.

12. Why is the doctrine of the Trinity in error? Neither Jesus nor His apostles ever taught a Trinity! It cannot be taught nor supported from the Bible. Because God is identified as the Holy Spirit, in the Bible, by Jesus in Jn.4:24, by Paul in Rom.1:10; 2 Cor.3:17-18 and Col.1:15, and John in Jn.1:18 and in 1 Jn.4:12. And that He is Holy, in Lev.11:44-45; Lev.19:2; Ps.99:3; Ps.99:5; 1 Pet.1:15-16 and in Rev.4:8. With that having been Scripturally established, there is no option to the fact the Holy Spirit is therefore also the Father of Jesus Christ, as found in Mt.1:20 and Lk,1:35. Which means there is one personage consisting of the Holy Spirit, who is also the Father, and the second personage, Jesus Christ, the Son of God, [Literally, God the Son] also referred to as God by the Father, in Ps.45:6-7, Lord in 110:1 and Immanuel which means "God with us," in Isa.7:14. Repeated in Mt.1:23, 22:44 and in Heb.1:8-9 when it was fulfilled. Obviously only two personages, not three. That is also the reason why Mt.28:19 can clearly be seen as having been was altered by attempts to make the Holy Spirit and the Father, His title, two persons instead of the one that they are. [And 1 Jn.5:7 which is an insert, that does not appear in any of the early Greek manuscripts]. Jesus would never have made such a statement, when He knew very well, His Father [which is the very same title all men receive after they have produced children of their own], is the Holy Spirit.

13. mTherefore, The description of God through the doctrine of the Trinity or any of the man made Creeds is quite impossible. Because Jesus and the Father are two separate personages [One by the One Spirit, as all we believers are, as found in Jn.17:21-22 and 1 Cor.12:12-14]. The Father [The Holy Spirit] and the Son [Jesus, whom the Father calls God], are neither co-eternal nor co-equal, as recorded in Pr.8:22-36; Jn.14:28 and Jn.17:3. The three personages described as the Formula for the doctrine of the Trinity, consists of the "Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit;" which is, in fact, identifying the Holy Spirit and the Father as two personages, when they are but one, according to the documented Scriptures addressed above. In addition to the Father and the Son being two entirely separate individuals.


Quasar
This is quite a long post, and there's definitely a lot of material to respond to. However, I'd like to take this time to respond to what I find to be the largest problem with this.

The poster argues,

“When you think about that carefully, you realize that we all become a part of the one body of Christ, [And the Father] through belief in Him. Receiving His baptism with the Holy Spirit [Mt.3:11; Mk.1:8; Lk.3:16; Jn.1:33 and Acts 2:1-3], and become a born again Christian [Spiritually], through the one Spirit of God. 1 Cor.12:12-13. But we all retain our own physical, individual identities, in the very same way the Father and the Son do. Two Persons!”

And,
“The apostles in every epistle in the Bible offer greetings to BOTH THE FATHER AND TO JESUS. If they were only one person, it is quite obvious those greetings would all have been different. By the same token, the Holy Spirit is not mentioned in any of those greetings, because the apostles all knew the Father was/is the Holy Spirit.”

The hidden presupposition of the poster makes the mistake of conflating Trinitarianism with Modalism (or Sabellianism), which is contradictory in and of itself, because Modalism is a form of Unitarianism. Trinitarianism and Unitarianism are polar opposites.

It's of vital significance to understand that there are multiple forms of Unitarianism. One of the heresies of the Early Church was a form of Unitarianism known as Sabellianism, which didn't deny that Jesus was God, but rather, argued that it was the Father who took on flesh, and was incarnated in the person we know as Jesus. There are multiple Unitarian groups, all with significantly different views of Christ, but the primary belief that they each share is that God is one sole individual. In this particular scenario, it's important to understand what distinguishes Trinitarianism from Sabellianism/Modalism.

The primary feature that distinguishes Trinitarianism from Modalism is simply this: the pre-existence of Jesus, the Son of God. Modalism adheres that prior to the incarnation Jesus pre-existed as the Father, while Trinitarianism teaches that Jesus pre-existed eternally alongside the Father.

That being said, how can you pose the question, “Why is the doctrine of the Trinity in error?” When, by judging from what you have said, it would seem that you’re arguing against something you don’t quite have a firm understanding of? Trinitarians have never believed Jesus to be the Father. This is why we're Trinitarians and not Unitarians!

It seems what we have here is a case of mistaken identity.
 
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bluto

Senior Member
Aug 4, 2016
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Actually william his main teaching is the fact that God the Father is the person of the Holy Spirit. He basis it on the fact that since God the Father is "holy" then He must be the person of the Holy Spirit. He also denies that the Son preexisted His incarnation even though he admits that the Son is God. There are other problems but these are the main ones. :eek:

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
 
J

jaybird88

Guest
for someone thats wrong Quasar sure has lots of scripture to back up his statements.
 

williamjordan

Senior Member
Feb 18, 2015
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There are several issues with Quasar's view that the Holy Spirit is the Father.

Foremost, is the fact that the Father and the Son were regarded by NT authors as one pneumatological unit. Or as Augustine put it,

“For, it is he (i.e.., the Holy Spirit) of whom the apostle says (Galatians 4.6), 'But because you are sons, God has sent forth the Spirit of His Son into your hearts,' and it is he (i.e., the Holy Spirit) of whom the same Son says (Matthew 10.20), 'For it is not you who speak, but the Spirit of your Father who speaks in you.'”

We see this in passages such as Romans 8.9-10; Acts 16.1-8, where there is an interchangeable use of “the Spirit of God”/“the Spirit of Christ,” and “the Holy Spirit”/“the Spirit of Jesus.” Also see Philippians 1.19, and 1 Peter 1.11. To these authors the Holy Spirit is both, the Spirit of the Father, and of the Son.

The second issue is, what do we do with texts such as John 16.13, where the “Spirit of truth” is said to “not speak on His own initiative”? This would seem to indicate that there is One with authority over Him.

In the OT, the Spirit is presented as an extension of God's personality and activity. The Spirit is God's “hand” (Ezek. 3.14; 8.1-3; 37.1) and his “breath” (Job 33.4; 34.14), his power and presence (Ps. 139.7). When the Spirit departed from Saul (1 Sam. 16.14), that meant that God had departed from him (1 Sam. 18.12). Similarly, the NT describes Jesus as being in and with those who are led by the Spirit (Matt. 18.20; John 14.23).
 
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bluto

Senior Member
Aug 4, 2016
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522
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for someone thats wrong Quasar sure has lots of scripture to back up his statements.
So jaybird, how would you go about applying 1 Thessalonians 5:21 to all of those scriptures that quasar quoted? :eek:

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
 
J

jaybird88

Guest
So jaybird, how would you go about applying 1 Thessalonians 5:21 to all of those scriptures that quasar quoted? :eek:

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
i think Q makes some good points. is he right about everything, maybe not. but i still think closer to the truth than some doctrines i have seen.