Christ kept the Law of Moses, so....

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evyaniy

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Regarding Psalm 119; you both may find the following interesting...it's something I'm still exploring...

All scripture must harmonize, and scripture says Christ has no sin, but clearly, portions of the passage apply to Christ. Consider these points:


- Moses was commanded to craft the mercy seat into two cherubs made from a single piece of beaten gold, "according to the pattern" Moses was given. Exodus 25:18

- On the day of atonement, cleansing blood was to be sprinkled on the east end of the mercy seat (i.e., the left hand when looking at it from our perspective), and never on the west end (i.e., the right hand from our perspective), and also in front of the mercy seat. Leviticus 16. The front being sprinkled is easy enough to understand (we come kneeling before the throne of mercy). The west end // righthand makes sense too (Christ ascended to the right hand of the Father, so He wouldn't need cleansing blood). But the lefthand...

- The ritual also details two goats, one killed and the other left to go free.

- Then we are told in Romans 3:25 that Christ is the mercy seat (some versions say "propitiation"). So the literal fulfillment of the image given to Moses.

- Revelation 3:21 says He that overcomes will be granted by Christ to sit with Him on His throne as He sits on His Father's throne. Together they will rule the nations.

- Hebrews 9:5 says that there's more to delve into with regard to the imagery of the two Cherubs but such wasn't to be discussed at the time.

- Finally, we have imagery during the gospels of Christ and Barabas being presented together for judgment, where the guilty went free while the innocent paid the price. Many older copies of the passage noted that Barabas' full name was "Jesus Barabas".

----

Twin Cherub mercy seat...twin goats...two men named "Jesus"...

So it's likely that we weren't meant to attribute all of Psalms 119 to Christ, but neither are we to negate the passage from Him simply because it mentioned sin. Part of it applies to Him and part of it applies to those in Him whom He cleanses...and they are One by Faith. (i.e., a single piece of beaten gold).
He does not confess to any sin in Psalm 119. He declares His innocence and blamelessness and obedience throughout Psalm 119.

There are 2 mistranslations in verse 67 and verse 176 that people claim was an admission of going astray. those are total mistranslations and no admission of any guilt. in fact if you look at the verses preceding and following those verses He is proclaiming His obedience and blamelessness. In the last stanza He was dead following the cross so He had fully obeyed the law at that point by offering His life to save us.

Psalm 119 is the Son's prayer from the first stanza to the last entirely. anyone who thinks otherwise is mistaken by some poor translations. those have already been addressed multiple times in this thread and others but some will not study the Hebrew to confirm what was explained. Psalm 119 is the Son's prayer for life and to be raised.
 
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evyaniy

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Still not a single person has agreed in certain terms that Psalm 119 is the Son's prayer for life and to be raised. So the assertion of the thread posted 4 months ago stating that nearly no one knows including the early Church expositors and current preachers still stands true. you can check youtube vids about Psalm 119 and still nearly no one gets it. too bad since it explains so much.
 

Yahshua

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Sep 22, 2013
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He does not confess to any sin in Psalm 119. He declares His innocence and blamelessness and obedience throughout Psalm 119.

There are 2 mistranslations in verse 67 and verse 176 that people claim was an admission of going astray. those are total mistranslations and no admission of any guilt. in fact if you look at the verses preceding and following those verses He is proclaiming His obedience and blamelessness. In the last stanza He was dead following the cross so He had fully obeyed the law at that point by offering His life to save us.

Psalm 119 is the Son's prayer from the first stanza to the last entirely. anyone who thinks otherwise is mistaken by some poor translations. those have already been addressed multiple times in this thread and others but some will not study the Hebrew to confirm what was explained. Psalm 119 is the Son's prayer for life and to be raised.
Many attribute this chapter to David. David was also a prophet. The words of the prophets applied to their lives first and then prophesied fulfillment of those words in Christ later, and such doesn't necessitate every verse of the passage being attributed to Him. For example:


Psalm 119:33-34, 73
33 Teach me, O LORD, the way of thy statutes; and I shall keep it unto the end.

34 Give me understanding, and I shall keep thy law; yea, I shall observe it with my whole heart.


73Thy hands have made me and fashioned me: give me understanding, that I may learn thy commandments.


As the Word of God, the Interpreter/Giver of the Law, would Christ need an understanding of how to keep The Law? Or would it be a challenge to observe it with His whole heart?
 

Nehemiah6

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Acts 2:24, 32Whom God hath raised up, having loosed the pains of death: because it was not possible that he should be holden of it.
The Bible says that all three persons of the Godhead were involved in the resurrection of Christ. But in order to refute the nonsense that Christ needed to be saved from death, it was necessary to show that He raised Himself from the dead. Depending on the context, God the Father raised Him, God the Son raised Himself, and God the Holy Spirit also raised Him . But there is no conflict since all three were involved.
 

Nehemiah6

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Still not a single person has agreed in certain terms that Psalm 119 is the Son's prayer for life and to be raised. So the assertion of the thread posted 4 months ago stating that nearly no one knows including the early Church expositors and current preachers still stands true. you can check youtube vids about Psalm 119 and still nearly no one gets it. too bad since it explains so much.
So you are TOTALLY UNIQUE in making this amazing discovery (even after Scriptures have been posted to debunk your nonsense). Now is that not delusional?
 
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evyaniy

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So you are TOTALLY UNIQUE in making this amazing discovery (even after Scriptures have been posted to debunk your nonsense). Now is that not delusional?
it would appear so.
 

Yahshua

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Sep 22, 2013
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The Bible says that all three persons of the Godhead were involved in the resurrection of Christ. But in order to refute the nonsense that Christ needed to be saved from death, it was necessary to show that He raised Himself from the dead. Depending on the context, God the Father raised Him, God the Son raised Himself, and God the Holy Spirit also raised Him . But there is no conflict since all three were involved.
So I copy and past multiple passages from the bible of what it clearly says multiple times...

...and then as a response, you give me a paragraph explaining what the bible says...without quoting one passage actually saying it.
 
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evyaniy

Guest
Many attribute this chapter to David. David was also a prophet. The words of the prophets applied to their lives first and then prophesied fulfillment of those words in Christ later, and such doesn't necessitate every verse of the passage being attributed to Him. For example:


Psalm 119:33-34, 73
33 Teach me, O LORD, the way of thy statutes; and I shall keep it unto the end.

34 Give me understanding, and I shall keep thy law; yea, I shall observe it with my whole heart.

73Thy hands have made me and fashioned me: give me understanding, that I may learn thy commandments.


As the Word of God, the Interpreter/Giver of the Law, would Christ need an understanding of how to keep The Law? Or would it be a challenge to observe it with His whole heart?
Apparently He did depend on the Father being His teacher. Did He have omniscience as a Baby and as a Child and as a young Man and on? If so then He did not completely empty Himself as He faced life as a Man like the rest of us. He learned and skinned His knees and made mistakes like we all do but He did not sin. He may have hit His thumb or finger with a hammer in the shop but did not curse because of it. He learned. His Father did form Him in the womb just like the rest of us. He depended on His Father throughout life and when facing the cross. His prayer in the garden tells us that.

That is why knowing Psalm 119 is His prayer in it's entirety is so important. It teaches us so much about Him and His humanity and how He conquered death through obedience to the law and His Father Who is His Teacher.
 

Nehemiah6

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So I copy and past multiple passages from the bible of what it clearly says multiple times... and then as a response, you give me a paragraph explaining what the bible says...without quoting one passage actually saying it.
Are you seriously trying to disprove the words of Christ? I will quote them once more:
Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up. Then said the Jews, Forty and six years was this temple in building, and wilt thou rear it up in three days? But he spake of the temple of his body. When therefore he was risen from the dead, his disciples remembered that he had said this unto them; and they believed the scripture, and the word which Jesus had said.

Christ said that He would raise Himself up, so I need to simply remind you that He did raise Himself up (along with the Father and the Holy Spirit being involved). Christ also said "I AM THE RESURRECTION AND THE LIFE". He could not say this unless He could also raise Himself from the dead and raise all men from the dead.
 

Nehemiah6

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Christ said that He would raise Himself up, so I need to simply remind you that He did raise Himself up (along with the Father and the Holy Spirit being involved). Christ also said "I AM THE RESURRECTION AND THE LIFE". He could not say this unless He could also raise Himself from the dead and raise all men from the dead.
JOHN 10:15-18 CHRIST HAD POWER TO RAISE HIMSELF FROM THE DEAD
15 As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep. 16And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd. 17 Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. 18 No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.

No man took Christ's life. He voluntarily gave up the ghost at a specific time (ahead of the other crucified ones). Then He also raised Himself up at a specific time on the first day of the week. This does not discount the fact that both the Father and the Holy Spirit were also involved. It simply confirms that we cannot fully understand the Godhead.
 
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evyaniy

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John 2:18 Then answered the Jews and said unto Him, What sign shewest Thou unto us, seeing that Thou doest these things?

John 2:19 Yahshua answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.

Is the "I" actually in the greek text? Or do the translators consider it implied? Could it also be translated In 3 days it will rise up.

They were asking Him for a sign of His authority to throw sellers and money changers out of the temple. His answer was that when they destroy the Temple of His body in 3 days He would rise again and that would be the sign. get a greek scholar to show if the "I" is in the text or considered implied by the translators.
 
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evyaniy

Guest
JOHN 10:15-18 CHRIST HAD POWER TO RAISE HIMSELF FROM THE DEAD
15 As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep. 16And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd. 17 Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. 18 No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.

No man took Christ's life. He voluntarily gave up the ghost at a specific time (ahead of the other crucified ones). Then He also raised Himself up at a specific time on the first day of the week. This does not discount the fact that both the Father and the Holy Spirit were also involved. It simply confirms that we cannot fully understand the Godhead.
He had the commandment and promise from His Father that if He gave His life in obedience to the law that He would rise again through His obedience. That is the promise and commandment of life in the law to Him. His Father raised Him. His power was His obedience to the law and His Father in giving His life to save us. His Father's commandment and promise of life in the law to Him for His obedience was answered and fulfilled by raising Him. He had total faith and confidence in His Father's promise and commandment of life to Him for His obedience.
 

posthuman

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He faced death on the cross as a Man when He had emptied Himself. He was tempted in all ways as we are which means He suffered as a Man and did not turn from His path or the death He faced. How then would the Scriptures be fulfilled?. He accomplished our salvation as a Man through the Eternal Spirit. Thus His prayers in the Psalms and Psalm 119 to the Father.
He set aside His glory; He is God manifest in the flesh not Job with a hedge around him God won't allow to be taken down.

In Him is no sin.
The one speaking in Psalm 119 has sin and repents of it.
 

posthuman

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John 2:19 Yahshua answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.

Is the "I" actually in the greek text?
First person singular conjugation.
The "I" is definitely what the text says.
Active not passive. He does it; it is not done to Him.
Greek is a very precise language, moreso than English.
God chose it on purpose.


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evyaniy

Guest
The promise of life in the law to Him is in Leviticus 18:5. It is a commandment and promise that the Man Who did the law would live. The Son fully understood that He had to give His life to save us to be completely obedient to the law. He understood that the commandment and promise of life in the law to Him meant that He would be raised from the dead for His obedience. That is why He praises the law etc. all through Psalm 119 and asks His Father over and over to keep His promise to raise Him according to the law and promise and judgments and commandments. Psalm 119 is in complete agreement with what He said in John 10.
 

posthuman

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He had the commandment and promise from His Father that if He gave His life in obedience to the law that He would rise again through His obedience
Show me where the law commands a man to take his own life
 

posthuman

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Psalm 119 is in complete agreement with what He said in John 10.
Psalms 119:67
Before I was afflicted I went astray,
But now I keep Your word.

Christ never "went astray"
 

posthuman

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Psalm 119 is in complete agreement with what He said in John 10.
No.
Clearly, no.


John 10:27
My sheep hear My voice, and I know them, and they follow Me.

He calls us His sheep. He declares Himself The Shepherd.


Psalms 119:176
I have gone astray like a lost sheep;
Seek Your servant,
For I do not forget Your commandments.

The psalmist calls himself a sheep, not a shepherd.
Even a sheep gone astray, in sin.

In Christ is no sin.
Calling God a stray sheep is blaspheming Him.