Churches that Don't Allow Tongues and Prophecy in Meetings disobey Bible

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notconformed2theworld

Guest
#21
There is a lot of the churches do that are against the Scriptures:

Like celebrate Christmas

Yeremyah 10:1-6, "Hear the word which Yahweh speaks concerning you, O house of Israyl. This is what Yahweh says: aDo not learn the way of the heathen; Gentile nations; and do not be deceived by the signs of heaven; though the heathen are deceived by them. For the religious customs of the peoples are vain; worthless! For one cuts a tree out of the forest, the work of the hands of the workman, with the ax. They decorate it with silver and with gold; they fasten it with nails and with hammers, so that it will not move; topple over. They are upright, like a palm tree, but they cannot speak; they must be carried, because they cannot go by themselves. Do not give them reverence! They cannot do evil, nor is it in them to do
righteousness! There is none like You, O Yahweh! You are great, and Your Name is mighty in power."

Celebrate Easter

Yeremyah 7:18, "How the children gather wood, and the fathers kindle the fire, while the women knead dough to make cakes for the Queen of Heaven, and how they pour out drink offerings to the hinder gods so they may provoke Me to
anger?"

The queen of heaven is the goddes Astarte/Ishtar better know in the west as Easter
This verse is not in reference to Christmas it refers to humans making false gods and having festivals pertaining to idol worship.
 

brmicke

Senior Member
Sep 6, 2012
276
6
18
#22
Isaiah 28:11 is the link between the Old testament teaching on this and 1 Cor 14:21 which is the New Testament reference.

What Isaiah did in Isaiah 28 was to speak a mystery or parable as is seen from Isaiah 28:14 where Isaiah begins to speak the message from the Lord by using the words "therefore Hear the word of the Lord". What Isaiah says after that statement is the original message in tongues as I understand it. Beginning from Isaiah 28:14 through the end of the chapter Isaiah tells them a parable.

Now Acts 2:11 tells us that speaking in tongues involves speaking about the works of God. Here is where your former post comes in - There are some deep spiritual truths and there are some that Christians consider basic. It should be remembered however that even the simple spiritual truths escape the understanding of non-believers.

Jesus told His disciples that the reason He spoke in parables in Matt 13:11-12 and Mark 4:11-12 was to keep unbelievers from understanding the truths of God.

It is a little difficult to understand that Jesus did not want those who refused to believe to understand the truths of God but that is a truth that Christian culture as a whole does not want to see. They want everyone to understand the things of God but Jesus only wanted those who chose to believe in Him to understand the things or "works" of God, Mark 4:11.

Mr 4:11 And he said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done in parables:

Brian
 

brmicke

Senior Member
Sep 6, 2012
276
6
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#23
I can send you all this information which is basically repeating what I say in my articles about tongues --

http://brmicke.yolasite.com/tongues-explained.php

I can tell you that there is absolutely no evidence whatsoever that any scriptural person ever spoke in ecstatic utterances.
It will not make any difference unless you are devoted to the bible instead of your "experience".

There are many different types of "experiences" involving spiritual matters - for instance the Mormons are completely convinced they are right because when they hear the words of the book of Mormon they get a "burning in the bosom". This is basically a "feeling or experience"- and that is the only thing a person bases adherence to ecstatic utterances upon.

Ecstatic utterances are based entirely on "experience or feelings" and not on scripture.

Respectfully - Brian
 
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nathan3

Guest
#24
Everyone should look up the words tonuges in greek. it will show Paul is teachin how to comunicate with who speak a different language . When he says they have to enterpret ,he does not say this is some mummbling...you cant enterpret confusion, or non sense...

Somthing we are missing here also is, Paul says "interpret",,,
if ,the gift of the Holy Spirt was the subject in that chapter, he would have not used that word interpret, . Because There is no need of any interpreter with Gods Holy Spirt, Act chapter 2 documents that.....
 
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nathan3

Guest
#25
Church is for teaching all of Gods words.

If I speak Engish, and some of the church only understand Italian, then there needs to be a interpreter to translate the English of the teacher onto the Italian of the hearer, so that they can even know when to say amen..

God and the angels know all languages, but people do not know all languages..therefore, there is a need for a interpreter, more so in Pauls time. You didi not have to talk one city block before people were talking a totally different language.. Paul was smart and spoke with many lanuaages that he learned and grew up with naturally.... These aer the things Paul is teaching in that chapter...


There is no room for the confusion people have turned that chapter into.
 

brmicke

Senior Member
Sep 6, 2012
276
6
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#26
Hi President - I will try and address this because it seem to be a sticking point for you.

Acts 2 says they spoke in other languages. Do you want me to believe that speaking in other languages does not mean speak in other languages, but means speaking in parables?
To answer the question, No - I do not want you to believe that speaking in other languages does not mean speaking in other languages, but means speaking in parables.

I am not sure which verse you are referring to, but I think it is Acts 2:6.

Ac 2:6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language.

This is not a miracle - every proselyte who was speaking had converted to Judaism (including the Galileans), and each one of them had to have had a native language other than the language of the Jews.

When the Spirit was poured out on the group of Jewish believers and Galilean proselytes the Galilean proselytes spoke of the works of God in their native languages and not in the Jewish language.

Ac 2:5 ¶ And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven.

Well, if devout believers from every nation under heaven heard the Jews and Galilean believers speak of the "works of God" in their native languages what were they to conclude? Exactly what Peter addressed in Acts 2:27 - that the Holy Spirit was now to be poured out on all flesh, and not only on the Jews.

The devout believers dwelling in Jerusalem heard the Jews and Galileans speaking in their native languages because the Galilean proselytes who were speaking in Tongues were native to the same nations as the devout believers dwelling in Jerusalem were.

Galilee consisted of various non-Jewish races.
 
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nathan3

Guest
#27
What verses say in acts 2, that the Holy Spirt was given to other people then the 12? ...

The merical was that although there were ppl from all over the world , and spoke and understood different lanuages ( all the lanuages are listed ), everyone there could understand clearly Peter and the 12. God is speaking through Peter, to all those ppl at once with no enterpreter. We should be willing to look at all these verses .
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
9,093
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#28
Isaiah 28:11 is the link between the Old testament teaching on this and 1 Cor 14:21 which is the New Testament reference.

What Isaiah did in Isaiah 28 was to speak a mystery or parable as is seen from Isaiah 28:14 where Isaiah begins to speak the message from the Lord by using the words "therefore Hear the word of the Lord". What Isaiah says after that statement is the original message in tongues as I understand it. Beginning from Isaiah 28:14 through the end of the chapter Isaiah tells them a parable.

Now Acts 2:11 tells us that speaking in tongues involves speaking about the works of God. Here is where your former post comes in - There are some deep spiritual truths and there are some that Christians consider basic
'Tongues' means languages. Speaking in tongues is speaking in languages. You can speak about the works of God in a foreign language, but you don't have to speak in a foreign language to speak about the works of God. You do not have to exercise a supernatural ability to speak in a language that you do not know to be able to speak about the works of God.

It seems like your interpretation ignores what the text literally means. If Paul said that when a man spoke in tongues, he was speaking mysteries with his spirit, that does not mean that speaking in tongues MEANS speaking mysteries. You can speak mysteries with your understanding, without speaking in a foreign language.

The part about an uncertain sound and the part about trying to understand Barbarians in I Corinthians 14 makes the most sense if we understand speaking in languages to actually mean speaking in languages.

. It should be remembered however that even the simple spiritual truths escape the understanding of non-believers.

Jesus told His disciples that the reason He spoke in parables in Matt 13:11-12 and Mark 4:11-12 was to keep unbelievers from understanding the truths of God.

It is a little difficult to understand that Jesus did not want those who refused to believe to understand the truths of God but that is a truth that Christian culture as a whole does not want to see. They want everyone to understand the things of God but Jesus only wanted those who chose to believe in Him to understand the things or "works" of God, Mark 4:11.
I don't disagree that there are those who have difficulty perceiving and understanding spiritual things. I agree with you on that. I just don't think speaking about deep spiritual things means the exact same thing as speaking in languages. I believe that speaking in languages means speaking in languages.
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
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#29
To answer the question, No - I do not want you to believe that speaking in other languages does not mean speaking in other languages, but means speaking in parables.
What you are arguing for is plain nonsensical. But when I say that, I really mean that the sky is blue and the cow jumped over the moon. But 'sky is blue' really means I ate zucchini for dinner tonight. And 'cow jumped over the moon' is a code for the number of calories was in the zucchini. If you understand parables, you will know how many calories.

If you studied Spanish in school, did you really just study parables in English instead?

Acts 2 even lists the languages of the areas that were spoken (or heard). It's pretty straightforward.

If someone speaking in a foreign language is speaking about spiritual mysteries, it does not stand to reason that speaking in a foreign language means speaking spiritual mysteries. That's faulty reasoning.


I am not sure which verse you are referring to, but I think it is Acts 2:6.

Ac 2:6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language.

This is not a miracle - every proselyte who was speaking had converted to Judaism (including the Galileans), and each one of them had to have had a native language other than the language of the Jews.

The devout believers dwelling in Jerusalem heard the Jews and Galileans speaking in their native languages because the Galilean proselytes who were speaking in Tongues were native to the same nations as the devout believers dwelling in Jerusalem were.
What languages do you think they spoke in rural Galilee. Maybe they spoke Hebrew instead of Aramaic, but they probably didn't speak all those other languages in the list, including the languages of African provinces, not from their own natural knowledge. Where do you get the idea that Jesus' 120 disciples in the upper room were so international? Where do you get the idea that all these languages were common in Galilee? Do you have any historical evidence, or is this all just your theory?

Galilee consisted of various non-Jewish races.
There were probably some Greek speaking Gentiles. But where is the evidence that Galileans knew African languages and some of the other languages?

And what does all this stuff you are saying have to do with your theory that speaking in languages means to speak in parables. Before, speaking in languages meant speaking in parables. Now, you have it meaning speaking in languages. Your theory seems all convoluted.
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
9,093
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#30
I can tell you that there is absolutely no evidence whatsoever that any scriptural person ever spoke in ecstatic utterances.
That's a strawman argument. Have you ever heard anyone who spoke in tongues describe it as 'ecstatic utterances.' That sounds like a liberal hi-fulutant description.

As far as being 'ecstatic' goes, I've heard preachers preach in English who sound ecstatic, and not all of them believe in speaking in tongues. One does not have to be ecstatic to speak in tongues.

It will not make any difference unless you are devoted to the bible instead of your "experience".
The passages of scripture on tongues probably won't make much sense to you unless you let go of this pet theory of yours.

There are many different types of "experiences" involving spiritual matters - for instance the Mormons are completely convinced they are right because when they hear the words of the book of Mormon they get a "burning in the bosom". This is basically a "feeling or experience"- and that is the only thing a person bases adherence to ecstatic utterances upon.
My understanding of tongues lines up with what Paul says in I Corinthians 14. I can show you in detail with each verse. Your understanding doesn't even line up with the literal meaning of 'glossalalia' in Greek.

Ecstatic utterances are based entirely on "experience or feelings" and not on scripture.
Again the straw man. Experiencing spiritual gifts is not a bad thing. Paul encourages the Corinthians to do so in I Corinthians when he exhorts them regarding coveting spiritual gifts, praying to interpret, etc.
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
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#31
Have you noticed that I Corinthians 14 is pretty much the only whole chapter that tells us what to do in church, unless you count chapter 11 which talks about the Lord's supper.

There are a few verses here and there that talk about what to do in church. Hebrews 10:24-25 talks about provoking one another to love and to good works. It tells us to exhort one another. A couple of passages tell us to speak to one another in psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs.

And then we have this whole chapter on how to have an orderly church service, in the midst of a discussion on how the Corinthians were apparently doing it wrong. Notice what is and what is in the chapter on what to do in church.

- No reference to one long sermon.
- No reference to a pastor saying anything.
- Instructions about 'every one of you' speaking or singing in church.
- Endorsement of everyone singing psalms (solos?), teaching, sharing revelations, speaking in tongues, and interpreting tongues.
- Specific instructions on how to speak in tongues and interpret in an edifying manner.
- How prophets are to speak. How 'ye' may prophesy.

Prophets speaking in church gets mentioned. Pastors speaking does not. One verse says elders are to be 'apt to teach.' No scripture says they take the dominant speaking role in church, though. Elders and anyone else with a pastoral gift is included in 'every one of you.'

There is no scripture for the idea of a pulpit-centered church service with one long sermon. But there is scripture for a church meeting where all prophesy. There is scripture for church meetings in which tongues are interpreted.

Why is it that so many Christians support as holy traditions that aren't in scripture like the importance of the Sunday sermon, but totally reject what is actually commanded, like instructions for speaking in tongues and interpreting or instructions for prophesying in church?
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
9,093
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#32
Btw, I would like to point out that many Christians have experienced speaking in tongues followed by an interpretation in church. There is this false idea among some people who have no experience with these gifts that tongues aren't interpreted. They are and have been for a long time in many churches.
 

Nick01

Senior Member
Jul 15, 2013
1,272
26
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#33
In Acts 15, the brethren from Jerusalem are allowed to speak in Antioch. After they teach error, Paul and Barnabas disputed with them, and then go to Jerusalem. In the Jerusalem CHURCH, certain Pharisees in the church are allowed to speak, also permitting Gentile circumcision. They are allowed to address the assembly. They spoke error, and the apostles and elders met to consider the matter.
But the error is corrected. That's different. In the case of untranslated tongues, how do you suggest being able to correct error, if it occurs?

Titus 1
[SUP]10 [/SUP]For there are many rebellious people, full of meaningless talk and deception, especially those of the circumcision group. [SUP]11 [/SUP]They must be silenced, because they are disrupting whole households by teaching things they ought not to teach—and that for the sake of dishonest gain
(NIV)

Notice the mouths of troublemakers were to be stopped after they made trouble. In I Corinthians 14:26, the brother with a doctrine is allowed to speak. It is those who make trouble, who teach false doctrine, who are to be silenced. Paul could have said stop up all the mouths except those of the elders, or all except some monarchical bishop which I hereby appoint. No one can talk but Stephanus, and maybe Gaius if Stephanus has a sore throat. But he did not say that.

First you let the prophets speak two or three, and then the other judge. You shouldn't say, "prophets, say nothing. You might make a mistake."
Again, this isn't about making mistakes. This is about actually being an interpreter, not about failing in your interpretation. For instance, the prophet Agabus was arguably mistaken in minor parts of the prophecy he gave. But there is no question he was a prophet. A NT prophet, unlike, say, Moses, is fallible. From the guidance given in the NT (and even in parts of the Old Testament, particularly Exodus), it is clear that prophets can be mistaken without ceasing to be prophets. Thus, why prophecy should be tested, not outright rejected.

The question of tongues, however, is different because to understand tongues, one must be able to interpret. Tongues are by definition unintelligible, otherwise one would not need an interpretation. However, to test the interpretation, one would need another interpretor to independently decide what the tongues meant. I think this is why Paul downplays tongues so much in relation to the other gifts - the level of edification one can get from the practice in a church meeting is not particularly greater than prophecy or even teaching, but requires more testing and translation to achieve. Hence why he argues tongues are primarily a thing of personal edification.

Asa side note, would you advocate inviting someone to teach in your church if they have previously given a teaching that is clearly not from God? Or a prophecy that is clearly not from God? If no, then how do you go about applying the same thinking to tongues?

Look at verse 26 in the OP. If someone has a doctrine (teaching) to teach, you let him teach. It commands 'let all things be done unto edifying.' This passage is inconsistent with the closed pulpit idea.
But again, that doctrine needs to be tested. I would assume you are not suggesting Paul says doctrine should not be tested, and that which is in error be rejected?


Unless you have spiritual perception to discern it prophecy can be just as tricky.
Depends on what you mean by prophecy. Certainly, I would say any prophetic word that contradicts Scripture is immediately in error. Now, it might be trickier than teaching (again, depending on what you define prophecy as), but its surely less tricky than tongues, by definition. That's why Paul requires interpretation. How do make a similar call with tongues as to prophecy when interpretation is required, but you have no way of knowing if the interpretation is correct?


Paul seems to give the benefit of the doubt that the gifts are real and genuine. If the interpretation is edifying, is there any reason to reject it?
On this point, I would simply question what, then, the substantive difference is between teaching, prophecy and tongues. If all that matters is simply edification, why do I need someone to speak in tongues? Why not just stand up and say something encouraging? And, of course, he does not assume what you says he does. The Bible has false prophets, and false teachers. Paul names some of them. Clearly, there are people who purport to be truly gifted, but are not. I agree that is a different category to be simply mistaken (hence the need for testing), but its simply wrong to have the stance of assuming the genuineness of someone's claim to true, godly giftedness. This is why Paul says test everything/
 

ForthAngel

Senior Member
Aug 31, 2012
2,171
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#34
Why is our one example of miraculous tongues SO hard to understand? How could miraculous tongues turn into anything but this? I wonder if it has anything to do with those who practice glossolalia somehow feeling "special" in some way? Pretty sure that's what it all boils down to.

Acts 2
5 And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven.
6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language. 7 And they were all amazed and marveled, saying one to another, “Behold, are not all these which speak Galileans?” 8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?

It's safe to assume they were speaking Galilean, not glossolaliafalalashakarapa. Then what happened? Everyone who spoke another language hear the Galilean in their own language. So many people have admitted to faking this, but strangely enough, no one in their former churches before they got out ever call them out on it. I wonder why? I didn't realize a "holy spirit" language could be faked so easily. Some miracle that.
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
9,093
1,756
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#35
Why is our one example of miraculous tongues SO hard to understand? How could miraculous tongues turn into anything but this? I wonder if it has anything to do with those who practice glossolalia somehow feeling "special" in some way? Pretty sure that's what it all boils down to.
You might benefit from reading I Corinthians 14. In that passage, Paul says of the one who speaks in tongues 'no one understandeth him.' In Acts, the languages given happened to be the languages of those present. This was not the case when the spiritual gift speaking in tongues was used in the church in Corinth. It needed to be accompanied by the gift of interpretation if others present were to receive the language.

It's safe to assume they were speaking Galilean, not glossolaliafalalashakarapa. Then what happened? Everyone who spoke another language hear the Galilean in their own language. So many people have admitted to faking this, but strangely enough, no one in their former churches before they got out ever call them out on it. I wonder why? I didn't realize a "holy spirit" language could be faked so easily. Some miracle that.
You seem to have a negative attitude toward this spiritual gift which the apostle Paul and many of the Christians the Bible is immediately addressed to exercised. If God gives a gift, we should value it.
 
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nathan3

Guest
#36
Btw, I would like to point out that many Christians have experienced speaking in tongues followed by an interpretation in church. There is this false idea among some people who have no experience with these gifts that tongues aren't interpreted. They are and have been for a long time in many churches.
They are making it up. What people ""experience "" is actually far away from what is actually written about this. They are just making it up. They fake it ; from emotion and a need to want to experience ""something holy or religious ". It has nothing to do with the Holy Spirit. And can not be found in the Bible what they do, without directly ignoring whats written...
And to add insult to injury, the person trying to """"interpret their vain non sense, is just as ignorant as they are"".

It just floors me, to see people act that way.. When we have what is Written.. They rather request confusion..
 
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RachelBibleStudent

Guest
#37
There is no scripture for the idea of a pulpit-centered church service with one long sermon. But there is scripture for a church meeting where all prophesy. There is scripture for church meetings in which tongues are interpreted.
what about the story of paul preaching for a whole night?
 
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RachelBibleStudent

Guest
#38
There is a lot of the churches do that are against the Scriptures:

Like celebrate Christmas

Yeremyah 10:1-6, "Hear the word which Yahweh speaks concerning you, O house of Israyl. This is what Yahweh says: aDo not learn the way of the heathen; Gentile nations; and do not be deceived by the signs of heaven; though the heathen are deceived by them. For the religious customs of the peoples are vain; worthless! For one cuts a tree out of the forest, the work of the hands of the workman, with the ax. They decorate it with silver and with gold; they fasten it with nails and with hammers, so that it will not move; topple over. They are upright, like a palm tree, but they cannot speak; they must be carried, because they cannot go by themselves. Do not give them reverence! They cannot do evil, nor is it in them to do
righteousness! There is none like You, O Yahweh! You are great, and Your Name is mighty in power."

Celebrate Easter

Yeremyah 7:18, "How the children gather wood, and the fathers kindle the fire, while the women knead dough to make cakes for the Queen of Heaven, and how they pour out drink offerings to the hinder gods so they may provoke Me to
anger?"

The queen of heaven is the goddes Astarte/Ishtar better know in the west as Easter
this urban legend has been addressed many many times...

jeremiah was not talking about christmas trees...he was talking about making asherah poles...
easter has nothing to do with ishtar...the names only sound similar...easter is derived from the latin 'eostarum' which means 'dawn' and 'ishtar' is akkadian for 'she who waters'
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
9,093
1,756
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#39
But the error is corrected. That's different. In the case of untranslated tongues, how do you suggest being able to correct error, if it occurs?
What I notice is that Paul says nothing about checking to see if the interpreter is correct. I can show you evidence from scripture that the speaker in tongues did not understand (or may not have understood) the language. Even Chrysostom, who apparently didn't have any first-hand experience with tongues came to the same conclusions that people who have experienced it do from his reading of the text, and so have many other scholars who have read the passage. I can't really show that the interpreter does not 'naturally' understand the language so that he can sparse it out word by word, but the experience of those who interpret tongues that I've interacted with is that it comes like a prophecy, a message of interpretation of the tongue, rather than an ability to translate like one might do naturally with his mind.

Paul says nothing about testing the interpreter with one's natural mind and abilities to verify the interpretation. But I have known a couple of people who have gotten the same interpretation of tongues as someone else, but the other person spoke it out. One of them was my college roommate. I also know someone who said the same thing happens with prophecies, someone else gives the same prophecy first. With prophecy, that's something you might expect. The 'one sitting by' might get the continuation of the exact same words the prophet is speaking or maybe he gets something else to continue it.

Again, this isn't about making mistakes. This is about actually being an interpreter, not about failing in your interpretation. For instance, the prophet Agabus was arguably mistaken in minor parts of the prophecy he gave. But there is no question he was a prophet.
If Jews having Romans bind hands, or if the Roman officer were commanding Jewish soldiers, the passage with Agabus is not so difficult. It's possible Paul was bound by Jews at some point during his ordeal.

The question of tongues, however, is different because to understand tongues, one must be able to interpret. Tongues are by definition unintelligible, otherwise one would not need an interpretation. However, to test the interpretation, one would need another interpretor to independently decide what the tongues meant.
If you really wanted to test it somehow, you could find situations of two people getting the same interpretation at the same time. But Paul does not say to do this. Verses 27 through 28 would indicate that just one person interpreting would be good enough.

Practically, if a message in tongues alone without interpretation does not edify others, then it does not make sense that a message in tongues would hurt others either if it weren't genuine. Also, let's say someone thinks he's interpreting, but he's so green he doesn't realize he is giving a prophecy after someone else gave an uninterpreted tongue. If his message is edifying, why would you want to shut him down? Who would know what is going on? Maybe someone would be gifted in discerning these things enough to know what is going on, but would you want to stop the flow of the meeting over such things, as opposed to discussing it with the speaker in tongues and interpreter in private?

I think this is why Paul downplays tongues so much in relation to the other gifts - the level of edification one can get from the practice in a church meeting is not particularly greater than prophecy or even teaching, but requires more testing and translation to achieve. Hence why he argues tongues are primarily a thing of personal edification.
He spend a lot of the chapter building up to the instructions regarding interpreting tongues. The Spirit gives tongues and interpretation as gifts. We might say that's complicated, why not just prophecy, but if the Spirit chooses to give these as gifts, we should accept them. Reading the chapter, I do get the impression that prophecy is better, certainly better for the congregation than just tongues without interpretation.

Asa side note, would you advocate inviting someone to teach in your church if they have previously given a teaching that is clearly not from God? Or a prophecy that is clearly not from God? If no, then how do you go about applying the same thinking to tongues?
Titus talks about stopping the mouths of certain people who teach false doctrine and I would think the same should apply to people who prophesy. I wouldn't advocate permanently shutting the mouth of a teacher who made some error on a minor point of doctrine, or even just a minor error about a fact of the Bible. People who err can also be restored. When it comes to tongues, I see instructions on stopping the mouths of those who teach false things, but no instructions along those lines about tongues. Instructions about tongues are about when and where to use them and instructions about interpreting them. There is nothing in the New Testament about false tongues or a need to judge tongues.

Depends on what you mean by prophecy. Certainly, I would say any prophetic word that contradicts Scripture is immediately in error. Now, it might be trickier than teaching (again, depending on what you define prophecy as), but its surely less tricky than tongues, by definition.
A prophecy that says the church needs to prepare for a coming famine is a little more tricky. If you don't know the prophet, how do you deal with that. Do you take up an offering for the poor saints in a nearby church, or just wait and see if the prophecy comes to pass? What if someone prophecies that there is adultery in the church, or that God is going to start blessing people with children, or that someone is going to be used in a certain ministry? Do you open the Bible and show where Jim-Bob is called to evangelize?

On this point, I would simply question what, then, the substantive difference is between teaching, prophecy and tongues. If all that matters is simply edification, why do I need someone to speak in tongues? Why not just stand up and say something encouraging?
The Spirit gives gifts for a reason. We are to 'let all things be done unto edifying'? We shouldn't try to find fault with which gifts the Spirit has given and ask why He didn't give us something we like better. Nor should we prevent the gifts from operating in church as intended and taught in scripture.
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
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#40
what about the story of paul preaching for a whole night?
Thank you for bringing that up. Notice what the word is that is translated 'preach'.
G1256

διαλέγομαι
dialegomai
dee-al-eg'-om-ahee
Middle voice from G1223 and G3004; to say thoroughly, that is, discuss (in argument or exhortation)

KJV Usage: dispute, preach (unto), reason (with), speak.
Also notice that Paul is an apostle in an era when there is no complete set of written New Testament scriptures. Most of the people I know who want to preach all night do not claim to be apostles. The instructions for churches that Paul left when he wasn't around found in I Corinthians 14 have 'every one of you' speaking and singing to edify the assembly.