I have before but it has gotten ignored and again I can put 1 Corinthians within the context of Acts,because there some things in Acts and 1 Corinthians that go together. 1 Corinthians was written about 55 AD,Acts runs from 33 Ad to about 66 AD. Paul is arrested in about 57 AD.
Paul Writes 1 Corinthians in AD 55,in which Paul says tongues,etc will cease, in Acts 19 is the last time Luke records people speaking in tongues about AD 56,somewhere during this time James also writes that if one is sick to go before the elders of the church be anointed with oil.....,so for the next ten years Paul is still preaching,gets shipwrecked on Malta,people get saved but not one mention that they speak in tongues. Why does Acts appear to be in agreement with Paul in 1 Corinthians when he said tongues would cease? This is within the time frame of Acts,1 Corinthians and James and when they were written and what is recorded in Acts.
Paul Writes 1 Corinthians in AD 55,in which Paul says tongues,etc will cease, in Acts 19 is the last time Luke records people speaking in tongues about AD 56,somewhere during this time James also writes that if one is sick to go before the elders of the church be anointed with oil.....,so for the next ten years Paul is still preaching,gets shipwrecked on Malta,people get saved but not one mention that they speak in tongues. Why does Acts appear to be in agreement with Paul in 1 Corinthians when he said tongues would cease? This is within the time frame of Acts,1 Corinthians and James and when they were written and what is recorded in Acts.
If you'll notice, on Malta, Publius' father gets healed and so do all the sick people they brought to Paul. So late in the New Testament era, one of those 'and they healed them all' events happened.
Paul also wrote in Romans that from Jerusalem round about unto Illyricum, with signs and wonders, he had fully preached the Gospel of Christ. Acts doesn't tell us about Paul doing miracles in Rome or Illyricum, so he must have been doing a lot of miracles Acts didn't record. It already established the fact that Paul was a miracle worker, so there was no need to repeat this over and over again unless it was important for the story of what happened.
The fact that Acts doesn't mention tongues later in the book is not evidence that tongues had ceased. There is no way anyone would think that way unless they were trying to figure out a way to make tongues cease in Acts. It's a very biased interpretation that doesn't make any sense to those of us who are not of that persuasion. Paul talks about tongues ceasing in the context of the coming of the perfect. He also wrote of coming behind in NO spiritual gift waiting for the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ. Don't you think he knew full well he was going to write about speaking in tongues when he wrote that about 'no spiritual gift' in chapter 1? Whether Paul knew it or not, God did.
Irenaeus wrote of speaking in tongues in his own day in the late second century. It hadn't cased then. Why should it cease before the coming of the perfect?