Conclusion From Beware the Pseudo-Rapture Doctrine 4

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TheDivineWatermark

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SO what? I am concerned with what the Bible [teach]es NOT with what you think about time periods.

It is very apparent that you also disregard what the Bible itself says about "timing" issues and "sequence" issues and related issues...


... for example... what you said here:

After mentioning wrath in Luke 24, He says to look up your head for your redemption draweth night. There are many similarities to Matthew 24, including the reference to the Son of man coming, and Matthew 24 is addressed to His disciples.
The "similarities" you're likely referring to (in view of my previous post), between Luke 21 and Matthew 24--though both are a part of His Olivet Discourse--are actually completely distinct and referring to distinct periods:


--the "SEE-then-FLEE" that comes "BEFORE" all the beginning of birth pangs listed in Lk21:8-11, per v.12's "But BEFORE ALL these..."

cannot be the same as

--the "SEE-then-FLEE" that comes AFTER the beginning of birth pangs written of in Matthew 24:4-8, as vv.9-21 (for example) FOLLOW the beginning of birth pangs;


...and... as further evidence... "the abomination [singular] of desolation [singular] spoken of by Daniel the prophet" (Matt24:15, Jesus spoke of) can only be the "A[singular] of D[singular]" Daniel wrote about in his chapter 12 ("abomination [singular] of desolation [singular] SET UP [H5414]"), which the day-amounts given in that chpt coupled with Daniel having been told he would "[rest (that is, in death)] and STAND IN THY LOT [i.e. be resurrected...'to stand again' (on the earth)] at the END of the days [at the END of the "days" spoken of in that context]" proves that the Preterist interpretation (which famously tends to disregard "timing" issues also) cannot be correct...

...as the ONLY portion of His Olivet Discourse that speaks of the 70ad events are:

--Matt24:2 / Mk13:2 / Lk21:6 (corresponding with what Jesus said in Lk19:41-44,35 [/Zech9:9] said ON the very day that the "69 Weeks" was concluded, that is ON what we call Palm Sunday [on the very date they would select the Passover lamb, and examine it for four days, per Ex12:2,5,6];

--as well as what Jesus had said in Matt22 verse 7 "But when the king heard thereof, he was WROTH: and he SENT FORTH HIS ARMIES, and destroyed those murderers, and BURNED UP THEIR CITY"--That's the 70ad events... SAME AS in Lk21:23,20 (Olivet Discourse) "when ye shall SEE Jerusalem COMPASSED WITH ARMIES, then know that the desolation thereof is nigh. Then [...] FLEE to the mountains. [...] For these be the DAYS of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled."--Note that this is NOT saying, that this is the sum-total of everything having been written being fulfilled IN THIS instance (the 70ad events)... it is just making the point that THESE TOO are things [having been written] which must be fulfilled, these (as well) cannot be left out!

But vv.12-24a,b are clearly said to be what comes "BEFORE ALL THESE" beginning of birth pangs that vv.8-11 had just described (whereas Matthew 24:4-8 STARTS OUT with "the beginning of birth pangs" and proceeds FROM THERE in what FOLLOWS the beginning of BPs... including its own distinct "SEE-then-FLEE" occurrence that FOLLOWS "the beginning of birth pangs" [UNLIKE the one in Lk21!! which instead PRECEDES them!!]--and recall that "the BoBPs" are EQUIVALENT the SEALS of Rev in the section of Rev speaking of the "future" events of "things which must come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" which immediately precedes and leads UP TO Christ's Second Coming to the earth--Rev19--which clearly has not yet taken place... so the Preterists' disregard of "sequence / chronology" and the "timing" issues and other details has resulted in their completely MISSING what is actually being conveyed in Scripture--same goes for the "Amill-teachings" who also are well-known for disregarding the numerous and very meticulous "timing" and "sequence" issues God has provided in His Word)





(Why don't you just cut random-sized letters out of a newspaper to use in yoru messages like a serial killer leaving a message for the police?)
Nice. = )

Just trying to faithfully follow what my English teachers of old tried to teach me, to the best of my ability [emphasis mine] = ) , which I realize "my ability" is WHOLLY INADEQUATE (do you also often criticize people who stutter or the like, or are mentally slow and as such, communicate in a manner not quite up to your level??)

After all, I did not learn my English-and-Grammar-composing skills from "Internet chat boards" (the "stunted-grunt" method), but from ancient teachers who are now long dead...
... not to mention, I'm from a long line of both English teachers AND a slew of police-detectives... IT'S IN MY BLOOD!!!! ( :eek: AAAAHHHHH! )












My advice to you and the readers: CONSIDER the SEQUENCE ISSUES in the Olivet Discourse, and pay close attention to the "timing" matters there, RATHER THAN just "stabbing at" similar words and automatically ASSUMING that because there are indeed SIMILARITIES that this makes them BE THE SAME INSTANCE, but only by DISREGARDING the "sequence" and "timing" types of words found there too (little, supposedly "unimportant" words like "BEFORE" and "THEN" and "THEREFORE" and the like, which "Amill-teachings" and "Preterist-teachings" completely ignore to come up with their "mish-mash-of-MUSH" ideas which are incorrect)
 

cv5

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Presidente: A sledgehammer is not a scalpel with which to rightly divide the truth.

Please change out your tools and up your game a little.

Oh........and you are losing this debate big-time BTW. The outcome is always the same......:rolleyes:
 

TheDivineWatermark

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In II Thessalonians 1, Jesus gives the CHURCH rest from TRIBULATION when he COMES.
Again, v.7 says, "ye who ARE troubled" (notice v.4's "persecutions and tribulationS YE ENDURE"... that is, NOW, in their PRESENT and ONGOING EXPERIENCE) before it continues on to say, "REST / REPOSE with us IN THE REVELATION OF..." (note there is NO idea of "GIVE" or "RECEIVE" in this Greek word "rest / respose")
 

TheDivineWatermark

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[^ timed-out...]

Where it says "[are] BEING troubled [present participle]"... that's NOT referring to the "future" Tribulation-period (aka "the Day of the Lord" earthly time-period of JUDGMENTS unfolding upon the earth" thing, which is what 1:10 is saying, "the One DELIVERING us out-from THE WRATH COMING" thing... which "delivering us" takes place prior to that specific, future, LIMITED "TIME-PERIOD" (what we call the "Trib")--and not referring to the troubles, persectionS and tribulationS that the Church which is His body has experienced ALL THROUGHOUT its existence since the first century!



"ye who ARE BEING troubled REST / REPOSE with us IN THE REVELATION OF..." (there is NO idea of "GIVE / RECEIVE [rest]" in the Grk word "rest / repose" in this v.7)
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Luke 21:12-24a,b - (the 70ad events... note the OUTCOME in the last of these verses) -

12But before all these [that is, "BEFORE ALL" the beginning of birth pangs per vv.8-11 / Mt24:4-8 / Mk13:5-8], they shall lay their hands on you, and persecute you, delivering you up to the synagogues, and into prisons, being brought before kings and rulers for my name's sake. 13And it shall turn to you for a testimony. 14Settle it therefore in your hearts, not to meditate before what ye shall answer: 15For I will give you a mouth and wisdom, which all your adversaries shall not be able to gainsay nor resist. 16And ye shall be betrayed both by parents, and brethren, and kinsfolks, and friends; and some of you shall they cause to be put to death. 17And ye shall be hated of all men for my name's sake. 18But there shall not an hair of your head perish. 19In your patience possess ye your souls.

20And when ye shall see Jerusalem compassed with armies, then know that the desolation thereof is nigh. 21Then let them which are in Judaea flee to the mountains; and let them which are in the midst of it depart out; and let not them that are in the countries enter thereinto. 22For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled. 23But woe unto them that are with child, and to them that give suck, in those days! for there shall be great distress in the land, and wrath upon this people. 24And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled. [This is NOT a "Second Coming to the earth" passage]




... Whereas the OUTCOME of the Matthew 24:4-29,30,31 is NOT their "SCATTERING" as in the above SECTION of the Olivet Discourse, but rather the OPPOSITE: their being "GATHERED TOGETHER" into one place upon the earth, "to worship the Lord in the holy mount, AT JERUSALEM" when one compares Scripture with Scripture to recognize that Matt24:29-31 corresponds with the "GREAT" trumpet of Isa27:12-13,9 (re: Israel's "FUTURE"; Comp. v.9 with Rom11:26-27,15... along with Dan9:24's "TIME-prophecy" re: Daniel's people and Daniel's holy city); It is not a "harpazo / snatch / rapture / caught-away," but rather, a "shall be gathered ONE BY ONE" (to JERUSALEM)... i.e. the OPPOSITE OUTCOME from that of the "70ad" SECTION OF the Olivet Discourse (only in Lk21:12-24a,b).


They CANNOT BE the SAME!






[Lk21:12-24a,b = the 70ad events]
 

presidente

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Yhat is lacking on the post-trib side of the discussion is any mention of a catching-up event at the time of the Second Coming. Yhat we have at the Second Coming is a coming-down event. ;)
Again, v.7 says, "ye who ARE troubled" (notice v.4's "persecutions and tribulationS YE ENDURE"... that is, NOW, in their PRESENT and ONGOING EXPERIENCE) before it continues on to say, "REST / REPOSE with us IN THE REVELATION OF..." (note there is NO idea of "GIVE" or "RECEIVE" in this Greek word "rest / respose")

Ummm. So what? What does that have to do with the pretrib discussion?

ἀνταποδοῦναί is translated as repay or recompense or something along those lines.
 

presidente

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Yhat is lacking on the post-trib side of the discussion is any mention of a catching-up event at the time of the Second Coming. Yhat we have at the Second Coming is a coming-down event. ;)
The Bible never says 'second coming.' It says 'coming.' We read about the 'coming of the Son of Man' and 'His coming' and 'the coming of the Lord.' The word translated 'coming' in Greek is parousia. The Greek word has to do with being present. There is a Greek verb form which can be translated 'come' which means something like to be present or present oneself.

In Matthew 24 we see that the parousia of the Son of man is AFTER the tribulation. The rapture happens at the coming of the Lord according to I Thessalonians 4 which is THE rapture passage. According to II Thessalonians 2, the lawless one is destroyed at the brightness of the Lord's coming.

II Thessalonians 1 uses another word for 'come' that is probably more literally translated 'come' as opposed to a word that has to do with being present.

What we see in I Thessalonians is that the saints go up at the Lord's coming, and the saints come with the Lord. So it is obvious that the saints go up before they come with the Lord.

In Acts 1, the men say that the Lord would return as He left. He went up, and was then behind a cloud. He did not go half way up, return to earth for seven years, and then leave again.
 

presidente

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--the "SEE-then-FLEE" that comes "BEFORE" all the beginning of birth pangs listed in Lk21:8-11, per v.12's "But BEFORE ALL these..."

cannot be the same as

--the "SEE-then-FLEE" that comes AFTER the beginning of birth pangs written of in Matthew 24:4-8, as vv.9-21 (for example) FOLLOW the beginning of birth pangs;
If you want to make a point, quote the verses and write your points clearly without using capital letters or brackets, read it back to yourself and see if __you__ can understand what you are saying, then post it.

...and... as further evidence... "the abomination [singular] of desolation [singular] spoken of by Daniel the prophet" (Matt24:15, Jesus spoke of) can only be the "A[singular] of D[singular]" Daniel wrote about in his chapter 12 ("abomination [singular] of desolation [singular] SET UP [H5414]"), which the day-amounts given in that chpt coupled with Daniel having been told he would "[rest (that is, in death)] and STAND IN THY LOT [i.e. be resurrected...'to stand again' (on the earth)] at the END of the days [at the END of the "days" spoken of in that context]" proves that the Preterist interpretation (which famously tends to disregard "timing" issues also) cannot be correct...
This looks a bit like stream of consciousness word salad. If you would like to reword it with shorter sentences, no caps, and no brackets, and read it back to yourself to see if you understand it before you repost it, please goahead. I do not know what you mean by A of D'

But vv.12-24a,b are clearly said to be what comes "BEFORE ALL THESE" beginning of birth pangs that vv.8-11 had just described (whereas Matthew 24:4-8 STARTS OUT with "the beginning of birth pangs" and proceeds FROM THERE in what FOLLOWS the beginning of BPs... including its own distinct "SEE-then-FLEE" occurrence that FOLLOWS "the beginning of birth pangs" [UNLIKE the one in Lk21!! which instead PRECEDES them!!]--and recall that "the BoBPs" are EQUIVALENT the SEALS of Rev in the section of Rev speaking of the "future" events of "things which must come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]"
I just can't follow this--- long sentences, caps, convoluted from my perspective. If you want to explain something like this, please quote the verses of scripture you have in mind without all the caps and brackets that hinder sight-word vocabulary.

which immediately precedes and leads UP TO Christ's Second Coming to the earth--Rev19--which clearly has not yet taken place... so the Preterists' disregard of "sequence / chronology" and the "timing" issues and other details has resulted in their completely MISSING what is actually being conveyed in Scripture--same goes for the "Amill-teachings" who also are well-known for disregarding the numerous and very meticulous "timing" and "sequence" issues God has provided in His Word)
I'm not arguing for preterist or amil interpretations, so this seems a bit like a red herring.

Just trying to faithfully follow what my English teachers of old tried to teach me, to the best of my ability [emphasis mine] = ) , which I realize "my ability" is WHOLLY INADEQUATE (do you also often criticize people who stutter or the like, or are mentally slow and as such, communicate in a manner not quite up to your level??)
I've seen you lay off on capital letters and brackets in the past and your writing was more comprehensible.

After all, I did not learn my English-and-Grammar-composing skills from "Internet chat boards" (the "stunted-grunt" method), but from ancient teachers who are now long dead...
Did your English teachers teach you to write a lot of your papers in all capital letters. I just see that on Internet chat boards and in legal contracts. I suspect the lawyers do so to deter people from actually reading the contract since capitals are harder to read.

I used to teach English. I still teach, but another specialization after grad school. If I had students turning in papers that used capital letters in the middle of the sentence, I'd deduct points on the standard language component of the rubric. If they wrote parts of it in blue or purple, that would enter the criteria in my rubric or I'd post a warning about that for future assignments.


My advice to you and the readers: CONSIDER the SEQUENCE ISSUES in the Olivet Discourse, and pay close attention to the "timing" matters there, RATHER THAN just "stabbing at" similar words and automatically ASSUMING that because there are indeed SIMILARITIES that this makes them BE THE SAME INSTANCE, but only by DISREGARDING the "sequence" and "timing" types of words found there too (little, supposedly "unimportant" words like "BEFORE" and "THEN" and "THEREFORE" and the like, which "Amill-teachings" and "Preterist-teachings" completely ignore to come up with their "mish-mash-of-MUSH" ideas which are incorrect)
I'm not argue for amil or preterism. If you have some specific concerns about 'timing words', feel free to share them.
 

presidente

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It is indeed axiomatic (1) that the Resurrection/Rapture will take place in God's time and (2) that it has absolutely no connection to any tribulation period.
According to II Thessalonians 2, Jesus will give the church rest from its tribulation when He returns. Again.... scripture, not pretrib rapture theory.

Just like the rapture of Enoch, the 7th from Adam, who left the earth long before the Flood: By faith Enoch was translated that he should not see death; and was not found, because God had translated him: for before his translation he had this testimony, that he pleased God. (Heb 11:5)

1. Does the Church "please God"? Yes

Won't the righteous saints who come out of the great tribulation who are dressed in white who overcome the Devil by the blood of the Lamb and the word of their testimony.... don't they please God also?

2. On what grounds? On the grounds of the finished work of Christ.
If the righteous saints who come out of the great tribulation in Revelation overcome by the blood of the Lamb, aren't their grounds the same as yours?

3. Is the Church preserved from God's wrath? Absolutely


Do you think God will be angry at the tribulational saints who overcome?
 

presidente

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Presidente: A sledgehammer is not a scalpel with which to rightly divide the truth.

Please change out your tools and up your game a little.

Oh........and you are losing this debate big-time BTW. The outcome is always the same......:rolleyes:
Your debate method is to claim you are winning without presenting any evidence.

This is very simple. Show us where the Bible teaches that the rapture occurs before the tribulation. Show us where it teaches that Jesus comes back twice to justify categorizing some of the verses about the coming of the Lord to refer to one of the events and some to apply to another. The Bible just teaches that Jesus comes back, so it doesn't make sense to posit to returns of Christ. That's the issue.

But it is easier just to say your somehow winning a debate I suppose than to present evidence that does not exist.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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ἀνταποδοῦναί is translated as repay or recompense or something along those lines.
Okay [ :whistle: ] , so does this mean you believe the ones who were persecuting and troubling the Thessalonians were "recompenced / repaid" back at the time they and the Thessalonians existed on the earth, in their day--in the first century?

So what? What does that have to do with the pretrib discussion?








For the readers: note that this word for "repay / recompence [G467]" is also used in places like Luke 14:14 - https://biblehub.com/text/luke/14-14.htm
 

Bob-Carabbio

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Since the Lord Jesus Christ Himself was the one to first speak of the Rapture, your mockery reveals complete ignorance about this subject. Yes a trumpet will also sound at that time, since this event is in fact the Resurrection/Rapture of the Church. And the trump of God or "the last trump" has nothing in common with the trumpets which herald divine judgment.
Since God is fully capable of communicating with humans, and constantly DOES speak to his kids - do you SERIOUSLY think I need your "Eschatology" to know what to do when the time comes?????
 

TheDivineWatermark

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This reminds me of an Islamic apologist's debating tactic-- "Tell me where the Bible says, quote, "Jesus is God'" and if you cannot find the exact quote, he claims victory.


TDW: so the Preterists' disregard of "sequence / chronology" and the "timing" issues and other details has resulted in their completely MISSING what is actually being conveyed in Scripture--same goes for the "Amill-teachings" who also are well-known for disregarding the numerous and very meticulous "timing" and "sequence" issues God has provided in His Word)
I'm not arguing for preterist or amil interpretations, so this seems a bit like a red herring.
I'm not saying those are your positions (in the same way that I am not an "Islamic apologist"... yet you compared my debate tactics to theirs)... so all I'm saying is that when one simply "stabs at similar words" (or same words) but at the same time disregards the timing and sequence issues in those contexts, one is going to come to incorrect conclusions (which I'm saying is your "stab-at-words" method of ascertaining meaning)... such as in the following examples I've supplied:

--"SEE" then "FLEE" in both Lk21:23,20 (re: the 70ad events section of the Olivet Discourse) and in Matt24:15-21 (regarding the "future" period of time leading up to His Second Coming to the earth)--These being completely distinct occurrences taking place at completely distinct time-slots... the one being BEFORE ALL the beginning of birth pangs; the other being AFTER the beginning of birth pangs... and with each of these having completely opposite outcomes / ends;

--"this generation will not pass away until" is often pointed to as supposed proof that all would be completely fulfilled in the events surrounding 70ad (in their own first century time-slot); but those who propose such an idea are simply using the "stabbing-at-words" method, to come up with that faulty idea, but without considering that Lk21:35's "this generation shall not pass away till ALL shall have taken place" must necessarily include what v.24 had just said, which includes some very "of lengthy duration" items including the idea expressed by its own "until" word (which carries forward clear to the end of the future Trib yrs: "TRODDEN DOWN" = same thing being spoken of in Rev11:2 which verse's "timing" words speaks of the latter half of the "future" Tribulation period, ending at Christ's Second Coming to the earth);

--"parousia" is used with regard to Jesus' presence at the meeting of the Lord IN THE AIR, as well as regarding His Second Coming to the earth; you insist these are ONLY used of ONE OCCASION (re: Jesus); but the sequence and chronology issues in the context [and various contexts] proves that some period of TIME intervenes between these (namely, the ARRIVAL of "the Day of the Lord" time-period, which precedes His Second Coming to the earth BY SOME TIME... involving the time it takes for the "Seals / Trumpets / Vials" to unfold upon the earth); To blanketly declare that "parousia" only ever refers to His Second Coming to the earth is to employ this "stab-at-words" method while disregarding "sequence" / "chronology" and other timing issues (i.e. how one item "fits" in relation to another distinct item--time-wise / sequence-wise... which is what Paul is doing in 2Th2:1-9a); as well as to use MIS-defined words (that correspond with the "Amill-teachings" MADE UP definitions, rather than how the Bible itself defines it);



... that's just a few examples which I think we've touched on in this thread.










[another related example: when others "try on for size" what we are pointing out about 2Th2:3, they INCORRECTLY surmise that we are suggesting that it would say, "the RAPTURE cannot happen unless the RAPTURE takes place first...," However, we are NOT placing the idea / word "Rapture" in TWO places in this sentence, but only in ONE--so why are they trying to say we place it in the sentence TWICE?? That is to BUTCHER our point--what we are pointing out in this verse. The reason is BECAUSE they are MIS-defining the former of these two slots (the italicized "it" in v.3a), which ISN'T speaking of the Rapture, but rather is speaking of "THE DAY OF THE LORD" earthly-time-period that was falsely being claimed to be "is present [perfect indicative]" in v.2, "perfect indicative" meaning "action completed at a specific point of time IN PAST, with results continuing into the present..." (i.e. ALREADY HERE, and therefore already playing out upon the earth!!--That was the false claim). It wasn't... and Paul explains WHY (including the matter of the proper / correct SEQUENCE between those two distinct items).]
 

Nehemiah6

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Since God is fully capable of communicating with humans, and constantly DOES speak to his kids - do you SERIOUSLY think I need your "Eschatology" to know what to do when the time comes?????
It is not my eschatology. And we can abolish that word altogether. It is Bible prophecy, and that comes from God. Take it or leave it.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Okay [ :whistle: ] , so does this mean you believe the ones who were persecuting and troubling the Thessalonians were "recompenced / repaid" back at the time they and the Thessalonians existed on the earth, in their day--in the first century?
lol... See! What'd I tell ya?

Looky here:

[quoting from Merriam-Webster]

recompence
rec·om·pence
ˈrekəmˌpen(t)s

archaic variant of RECOMPENSE

[end quoting]

-- Recompence Definition & Meaning - Merriam-Webster



"archaic" is not necessarily "incorrect" :D





[reminds me of past discussions with "ewq" who could never concede that "apostasis" is simply an older spelling of the SAME WORD "apostasia"... both being defined as "a standing away [from a previous standing]" (or "departure") and is related to the "stasis / stasin" word used in Heb9:8b-9!!! (Major CLUE!! "... which is a PARABLE for the present time" this text goes on to state!)]
 

cv5

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Since God is fully capable of communicating with humans, and constantly DOES speak to his kids - do you SERIOUSLY think I need your "Eschatology" to know what to do when the time comes?????
At that point in time (the rapture), all that will matter is what you did.....not "what to do".
You'll be along for the ride in a situation completely out your control.
 

Nehemiah6

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If the righteous saints who come out of the great tribulation in Revelation overcome by the blood of the Lamb, aren't their grounds the same as yours?
When we read Revelation 7:14 we get the impression that this multitude of saints was subjected to the Great Tribulation. And I said unto him, Sir, thou knowest. And he said to me, These are they which came out of great tribulation, and have washed their robes, and made them white in the blood of the Lamb.

But "came out of" can also mean ESCAPED. After all the Great Tribulation is for the purpose of God's wrath to fall upon the earth. But that wrath is not for the saints of God. And that ties in with this verse (Rev 3:10): Because thou hast kept the word of my patience, I also will keep thee from the hour of temptation, which shall come upon all the world, to try them that dwell upon the earth.

The Great Tribulation corresponds to the seven vials of the 7th trumpet. There ha to be this correspondence. And all those vials represent the wrath of God.
 

Lucy-Pevensie

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Yhat is lacking on the post-trib side of the discussion is any mention of a catching-up event at the time of the Second Coming. Yhat we have at the Second Coming is a coming-down event. ;)
The second coming is explicitly described in 1 Thessalonians 4.16

For the LORD Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of an archangel, and with The Trumpet of God,
and the dead in Christ will rise first. Then we who are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds
to meet the LORD in the air. And thus we shall always be with the LORD.


I don't know why you refuse to see it.
According to scripture, the second coming is the time when the resurrection and catching up will occur.

Why should I add something else to it?

Jesus told us to be praying for his kingdom to come; not for his Church to suddenly depart.
 

Evmur

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christianchat.com

Here's a preacher who says "that the Lord told him about the false doctrine of Pre Tribulation Rapture and the Lord also told him about the coming persecution and martyrdom"

A comment in the link:

"I've always felt and believed we would go through the tribulation. All God's disciples were martyred except John. Jesus was killed. Presently people in third world countries are being martyred now. I think we are so arrogant to think we would not have to go through anything, especially martyrdom. People need to wake up ."

It's time for Christians to be well prepared, whatever trials and tribulation may possibly lie ahead of us, including martyrdom.

And we also should Evangelize well in the meantime, before the Tribulation comes. The more we do that now, the easier it will be then.

There's no doubt the Tribulation will be fierce, a terrible persecution. But it will last only 3.5 to 7 years. And with God's Grace, we must courageously withstand it, including by being ready to die.

Here's Revelation 13 on Tribulation Saints:

9 Whoever has ears, let them hear.
10 “If anyone is to go into captivity,
into captivity they will go.
If anyone is to be killed with the sword,
with the sword they will be killed.”
This calls for patient endurance and faithfulness on the part of God’s people.
the Lord also told him Trump would win the election ....