Continuationism vs cessastionism?

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
Aug 12, 2010
2,819
12
0
LOLZ!

Crossed wires or what.

someone speaking a language they learned = GIFT of tongues.

someone speaking one by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit = MIRACLE of tongues.

Are we on the same page bud?
 
1

1still_waters

Guest
LOLZ!

Crossed wires or what.

someone speaking a language they learned = GIFT of tongues.

someone speaking one by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit = MIRACLE of tongues.

Are we on the same page bud?
So are the tongues in 1 corinthians 12 and 14 the miracle tongues?
 
1

1still_waters

Guest
LOLZ!

Crossed wires or what.

someone speaking a language they learned = GIFT of tongues.

someone speaking one by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit = MIRACLE of tongues.

Are we on the same page bud?
So ok, where is your biblical evidence miraculous tongues have ceased?
 
L

Laodicea

Guest
Is the gift of tongues the same as the miracle of tongues?
Does the Bible call the gift of tongues the miracle of tongues I have not seen a verse that says this but, maybe I have missed it can you please show me the text.
 
1

1still_waters

Guest
Does the Bible call the gift of tongues the miracle of tongues I have not seen a verse that says this but, maybe I have missed it can you please show me the text.
Yeah now that strangelove is done with the lil theological square dance, we can get back to him showing us where 'miraculous' tongues are described as having ceased in the Bible.
 
1

1still_waters

Guest
I think strangelove was doing a little misdirection with his tongues are still for today, but not for today dance. His attempts to distinguish between learned tongues and miraculous tongues did nothing more than delay the pending answer we seek. Where does it say miraculous tongues, as he so distinctifes it, where in the Bible does it say they have ceased?
 
1

1still_waters

Guest
Also from 1 corinthians 12 and 14, it seems pretty clear that it's talking about more than someone's ability to learn a language.

1 cor 12

3 Therefore I want you to know that no one who is speaking by the Spirit of God says, “Jesus be cursed,” and no one can say, “Jesus is Lord,” except by the Holy Spirit.

-----

1 Cor 14

2 For anyone who speaks in a tongue[a] does not speak to people but to God. Indeed, no one understands them; they utter mysteries by the Spirit.

If this is speaking of simple ability to learn languages, then it would imply that anytime simply talks in another language they're speaking by the spirit.

Only the Spirit can give someone the ability to utter mysteries.

13 For this reason the one who speaks in a tongue should pray that they may interpret what they say.

Now if this was talking about the simple ability to learn a language then speak it, there would be no need to ask God to know what you're saying, because if you learned it naturally, then you'd have a clue what you're saying! The fact you have to ask for an interpretation shows that it is indeed something MORE.
 
L

Laodicea

Guest
Yeah now that strangelove is done with the lil theological square dance, we can get back to him showing us where 'miraculous' tongues are described as having ceased in the Bible.
If the gifts have ceased then it includes all this list:-
1 Corinthians 12:28
(28) And God hath set some in the church, first apostles, secondarily prophets, thirdly teachers, after that miracles, then gifts of healings, helps, governments, diversities of tongues.


But because they have not ceased we just need to ask the question "How do we know if someone who has a gift is from God?" The same can be said for miracles "How do we know if a miracle is from God?"
 
U

unclefester

Guest
Yeah now that strangelove is done with the lil theological square dance, we can get back to him showing us where 'miraculous' tongues are described as having ceased in the Bible.
Hope ya don't mind a lil' cut n' paste.

What was the purpose of tongues?
1) 1 Cor 14:22 says, “Tongues then ... are a sign for unbelievers”. The word “then” (“Wherefore” in

the KJV) means that this verse is referring back to the previous verse(s).

2) 1 Cor 14:21 says that God will speak to “this people”. The New Testament term “this people”

always refers to Jews and the unbelievers being referred to in 1 Cor 14:22 (from Isa 28) were Jews.

3) In Acts, whenever tongues was used Jews were present.

4) So, the purpose of tongues was to be a sign to unbelieving Jews. One sign was to show that salvation was for the Gentiles also (hence the foreign languages). Clearly, the sign is no longer needed.

5) Tongues was also a sign of judgment against the Jews. The quote in 1 Cor 14:21-22 comes from Isaiah 28:11-13 where judgment is pronounced against Israel. Their Temple was destroyed in 70AD.
Tongues is nowhere said to be a sign of a Christian being saved through receiving the Holy Spirit, nor is it said to be either a Prayer Language, the Baptism of the Holy Spirit or Tongues of Angels. These things can only be read into the text. The Bible only says that tongues was a sign to unbelieving Jews, nothing more.
The first church in Jerusalem was entirely Jewish and they badly needed convincing that Gentiles were part of God's salvation plan as they were fiercely, often violently, opposed to it. One example in Acts 11 shows this opposition and how tongues was used as a sign to verify that the Gentiles were in God's plan. Today, we have the Bible to explain the mystery of the church (Eph 3:1-6). Tongues, prophecy and knowledge are grouped because they had a limited purpose and when that purpose was served they were removed.












 
1

1still_waters

Guest
Hope ya don't mind a lil' cut n' paste.

What was the purpose of tongues?
1) 1 Cor 14:22 says, “Tongues then ... are a sign for unbelievers”. The word “then” (“Wherefore” in

the KJV) means that this verse is referring back to the previous verse(s).

2) 1 Cor 14:21 says that God will speak to “this people”. The New Testament term “this people”

always refers to Jews and the unbelievers being referred to in 1 Cor 14:22 (from Isa 28) were Jews.

3) In Acts, whenever tongues was used Jews were present.

4) So, the purpose of tongues was to be a sign to unbelieving Jews. One sign was to show that salvation was for the Gentiles also (hence the foreign languages). Clearly, the sign is no longer needed.

5) Tongues was also a sign of judgment against the Jews. The quote in 1 Cor 14:21-22 comes from Isaiah 28:11-13 where judgment is pronounced against Israel. Their Temple was destroyed in 70AD.
Tongues is nowhere said to be a sign of a Christian being saved through receiving the Holy Spirit, nor is it said to be either a Prayer Language, the Baptism of the Holy Spirit or Tongues of Angels. These things can only be read into the text. The Bible only says that tongues was a sign to unbelieving Jews, nothing more.
The first church in Jerusalem was entirely Jewish and they badly needed convincing that Gentiles were part of God's salvation plan as they were fiercely, often violently, opposed to it. One example in Acts 11 shows this opposition and how tongues was used as a sign to verify that the Gentiles were in God's plan. Today, we have the Bible to explain the mystery of the church (Eph 3:1-6). Tongues, prophecy and knowledge are grouped because they had a limited purpose and when that purpose was served they were removed.












Wow you answered directly and without the theological square dancing.

Impressive..
 
U

unclefester

Guest
Wow you answered directly and without the theological square dancing.
Hello 1still. Here's a little more food for thought on the subject ...... very short and brief. Seems the shorter posts tend to get read a bit more. More C n' P for the most part but it explains it rather nicely :) If the three items of 1 Cor 13:8 were not going to cease before we see Jesus, why does the Bible even mention "ceasing" ? If they were meant to be around until the end, like healing etc, why would God even bring up the matter of ceasing ? In vs.9-10, only prophecy and knowledge are spoken of in reference to perfection. Why? Because they are the very two gifts used since Genesis for the inspired writing of Scripture. With the completed Bible, these 'in part' gifts were withdrawn. Why ? It is so no one can add to the already perfect Word. There are six items mentioned in the passage 1 Cor 13:8-13. Of these six, three are said to remain and three are said to cease. Clearly, if words mean anything, three cease at some point in time while the other three remain beyond that point, until we see Jesus ... when faith and hope will also cease. Love ........ it'll always remain :)
 
Aug 18, 2011
971
7
0
Ok.

So.

Crossfire says spiritual gifts haven't ceased.

Strangelove says spiritual gifts haven't ceased.

Strangelove draws a distinction between apostolic miracles and spiritual gifts.

But even IF there is a distinction, that doesn't mean tongues have ceased. There were plenty of non-apostles in corinth who spoke in tongues.

Strangelove can you show me the distinction you have between apostolic miraculous events and spiritual gifts?

Because if you believe spiritual gifts still exist..ie 1 corinthians 12 and 14, then I don't see where your disagreement with crossfire comes from.

BINGO! it doesn't say anywhere the gifts have ceased or will cease before Jesus return!
 
C

Consumed

Guest
Cease to continue
Speaking bout me and about the whole fruitless point of discussing it (for me)

 
Aug 18, 2011
971
7
0
Cease to continue
Speaking bout me and about the whole fruitless point of discussing it (for me)

Well I can't go against what I feel in my heart and I have never seen a movie in my life that moved me as much as a few testimonials I saw plus some strange things I have both witnessed and heard of from very credible people I know personally. I am of the mindset as the Lord himself stated" if your faith be great enough you shall say to that mountain move and it will flee from before you" Having faith is the biggest part of the equation and without it it would be a difficult road indeed!
 
Aug 12, 2010
2,819
12
0
So ok, where is your biblical evidence miraculous tongues have ceased?
My aim is not to prove that miraculous tongues have ceased.

My aim is only to prove that the practices carried out by charismatic/pentacostals are NOT miraculous tongues.
 
Aug 12, 2010
2,819
12
0
Does the Bible call the gift of tongues the miracle of tongues I have not seen a verse that says this but, maybe I have missed it can you please show me the text.
When the Holy Spirit descended on the Apostles in Acts and they started speaking unlearned foreign languages was that a miraculous event or not?
 
Aug 12, 2010
2,819
12
0
Also from 1 corinthians 12 and 14, it seems pretty clear that it's talking about more than someone's ability to learn a language.

1 cor 12

3 Therefore I want you to know that no one who is speaking by the Spirit of God says, “Jesus be cursed,” and no one can say, “Jesus is Lord,” except by the Holy Spirit.

-----

1 Cor 14

2 For anyone who speaks in a tongue[a] does not speak to people but to God. Indeed, no one understands them; they utter mysteries by the Spirit.

If this is speaking of simple ability to learn languages, then it would imply that anytime simply talks in another language they're speaking by the spirit.

Only the Spirit can give someone the ability to utter mysteries.

13 For this reason the one who speaks in a tongue should pray that they may interpret what they say.

Now if this was talking about the simple ability to learn a language then speak it, there would be no need to ask God to know what you're saying, because if you learned it naturally, then you'd have a clue what you're saying! The fact you have to ask for an interpretation shows that it is indeed something MORE.
Tell us what it is then Stilly.

Coz now I'm completely baffled by your position.

I dont see anywhere in your verses anyone has to ask God anything about what someones saying. It says pray that THEY may interpret. In other words, pray for the gift of interpretation of foreign languages.

All I see is rebuking the Corinthian church for talking foreign languages without interpretation.
 
Aug 12, 2010
2,819
12
0
If the gifts have ceased then it includes all this list:-
1 Corinthians 12:28
(28) And God hath set some in the church, first apostles, secondarily prophets, thirdly teachers, after that miracles, then gifts of healings, helps, governments, diversities of tongues.

Why is everyone so obsessed with ceased or not ceased?

There are people doing TERRIBLE things in Christs name in churches all over the world. All we need to do is prove that those things are not biblical!

For example...talking GIBBERISH is not biblical!