Daniel's 70 weeks correctly interpreted (in my opinion)

[KJV1611]

I get so tired of those pontificating on Revelation and especially Daniel. They ignore that they cover end times and are written symbolically. Therefore both are subject to Daniel 12:4 and 9. So tell me oh great seer how you can accurately state what either book states about the end times.

Daniel 12 NIV - Sealed book until end times
4 But you, Daniel, roll up and seal the words of the scroll until the time of the end. Many will go here and there to increase knowledge.”

9 He replied, “Go your way, Daniel, because the words are rolled up and sealed until the time of the end.

What did he say that was wrong?

 

[Endoscopy]

In my youth I read pamphlets predicting the end coming soon based on the predictions in Daniel and Revelation. A couple of times groups after selling everything and giving the money away and went to a barracks to await the coming of Jesus. That was 50 years ago. So to say the least I don't believe a word of your pronouncements.

 

[Endoscopy]

What did he say that was wrong?

The specifics of the prophecy. It along with Revelation are sealed books. Therefore trying to explain the meanings of the symbolism is futile. Heard it all before!!

 

[KJV1611]

In my youth I read pamphlets predicting the end coming soon based on the predictions in Daniel and Revelation. A couple of times groups after selling everything and giving the money away and went to a barracks to await the coming of Jesus. That was 50 years ago. So to say the least I don't believe a word of your pronouncements.

That’s their own fault for being so stupid. neither book tells when Jesus is coming back.

 

[KJV1611]

The specifics of the prophecy. It along with Revelation are sealed books. Therefore trying to explain the meanings of the symbolism is futile. Heard it all before!!

People are traveling to and fro and knowledge has been increased so maybe it’s been unsealed now.

I know what you mean though. Most of what’s taught about Daniel and Revelation is garbage and couldn’t be farther from the truth.

 

[ChristisCreator]

I get so tired of those pontificating on Revelation and especially Daniel. They ignore that they cover end times and are written symbolically. Therefore both are subject to Daniel 12:4 and 9. So tell me oh great seer how you can accurately state what either book states about the end times.

Daniel 12 NIV - Sealed book until end times
4 But you, Daniel, roll up and seal the words of the scroll until the time of the end. Many will go here and there to increase knowledge.”

9 He replied, “Go your way, Daniel, because the words are rolled up and sealed until the time of the end.

could the 'time of the end' have been referring to the times Jesus and beyond? (Acts 2:17)

 

[Endoscopy]

That’s their own fault for being so stupid. neither book tells when Jesus is coming back.

Everything in both books is symbolic and only after the fact is it plain. For example the statue in Daniel. We now know what each layer means.

 

[Endoscopy]

could the 'time of the end' have been referring to the times Jesus and beyond? (Acts 2:17)

End Times is when Jesus returns with the angels gathering the living and dead in Christ before God rains down his wrath on earth. The time will be shortened so 1/3 of living things be left. Then comes judgement before God. There it is prophecied that many will tell Jesus about their works for him and he will answer begone I never knew you. That used to bother me until I realized a Christian would reference the grace through faith in Jesus not works.

 

[KJV1611]

Everything in both books is symbolic and only after the fact is it plain. For example the statue in Daniel. We now know what each layer means.

I agree with that to a degree but I think New Testament scripture explains most of the Old Testament prophecies simply by quoting them and saying this is that spoken by the prophet.

 

[Locutus]

The new testament is the fulfillment of the Old Testament prophecies.

 

[cv5]

I wanted to offer, as concisely as I can, what I believe is the correct interpretation of Daniel’s 70 weeks for people’s consideration. I think if you read this you will find it worth your time.

Daniel prays throughout Chapter 9 for the forgiveness of Israel’s sins as well as his own. Gabriel is sent to give him the answer to this prayer.

Daniel 9: 24-27 is poetic in its structure. Verse 24 sets up this poetic structure which continues down through verses 25-27. Looking at in the Hebrew makes this obvious in my opinion.

It revolves around “your people” and “your holy city” mentioned in verse 24. “Your people” is two words in Hebrew. “Your holy city” is three words in Hebrew. Gabriel mentions 6 things to be accomplished within the 70 weeks in verse 24.

The first 3 things have to do with the “sins of the people” that Daniel was praying about. All 3 of these things are also 2 words each in Hebrew just like “your people”.

The last 3 things are all 3 words each in Hebrew just like “your holy city”. This sets up the poetic structure of the prophecy which continues through verses 25-27.

So each verse has a “part A” and a “part B”. The first half of each verse is about “your people” and the second half of each verse is about “your holy city”.

We also see that the first half of each verse is dealing with the “sins of the people” that Daniel was praying about. This is tied to the Messiah who is mentioned explicitly in verse 25A and 26A and implied in verse 27A. The 70 weeks are tied to this figure because He accomplishes those 6 things Gabriel mentions in verse 24.

The second half of each verse is talking about “your holy city”. In 25B we see, “the street and wall shall be built in troubled times”. In 26B and 27B we read about the destruction of Jerusalem and the temple in 70 A.D.

It is here where many people err in understanding the prophecy in my opinion. They think that verses 26 and 27 are chronological and have a 2,000 year gap and counting. They are not chronological. They are the same event. Verse 26 is being retold in verse 27 giving more details. This is called recapitulation and happens all the time in prophetic passages in the Bible. To prove this is true let me give an example:

The seals, trumpets and bowls in Revelation are all describing the same event. It goes from the beginning all the way to the end and then starts over and retells it again with more details.

The sixth seal, the seventh trumpet and the seventh bowl are all the same event which is the second coming of Christ. Rev 19: 17-21 as well as Rev 20: 7-10 are also describing the second coming of Christ. You have it retold or recapitulated 5 times in the book of Revelation. Also, the seven trumpets and seven bowls mirror each other very closely but give more details. More evidence of recapitulation. This happens many times in the Old Testament too. Ezekiel 39 is retelling Ezekiel 38. They are the same event. There are not two Gog and Magog wars.

The sixth seal describes in Rev 6: 12 that there is a “great earthquake” and in verse 14, “every mountain and island were moved out of its place”.

In the seventh bowl you get the same description. Rev 16: 18 says there was a “great earthquake” and in verse 20, “every island fled away, and the mountains were not found”. If a person insists these are not the same event but chronological you have every island and mountain moved out of their place twice. Twice? Seems a bit hard to believe.

These are the same events being recapitulated (or retold) with more details. You will also notice that Rev 11: 15-19, which describes the second coming of Christ at the seventh trumpet, immediately goes back to the beginning and Christ’s birth in Rev 12: 1 and following.

There are many more examples of prophecy in the Bible not being chronological but “retelling” the same events with more details. I believe this is also the case with Daniel 9: 26 and 27.

26A and 27A are the same event. Christ’s crucifixion. 26A says “after 69 weeks messiah shall be cut off”. 27A says “in the middle of the week (the 70th week) He shall cause the sacrifice and offering to cease”. “After 69” and “70” are the same thing when the prophecy has a limit of 70 weeks. They are synonyms.

This is why Gabriel said that those 6 things would be fulfilled in 70 weeks. Not 42 weeks, or 57 weeks or 69 weeks plus 2000 years plus another week. Gabriel said 70.

If you look closely at verses 26B and 27B they are also the same event. The destruction of Jerusalem and the temple in 70 A.D.

Some people teach that the 70th week is still future. This is not possible according to what Gabriel tells Daniel in Dan 9: 24. He says all 6 things will be accomplished WITHIN the 70 weeks.

Some teach that the 69th week ended on Palm Sunday and 5 days later Jesus was crucified on Good Friday. If that is true, Jesus was crucified OUTSIDE the time frame of the 70 weeks.

In that system He is crucified AFTER the 69th week has ended and before the 70th week has begun. This is not possible because Gabriel says all 6 things will be accomplished WITHIN the 70 weeks.

I mention this because many Christians are still looking for a “70th week” that begins when the Antichrist signs a peace treaty with Israel. In my opinion this will never happen because the 70th week was when Christ was crucified.

Another thing to keep in mind is that some people will say that Jerusalem and the temple were not destroyed during the 70 weeks so your interpretation can’t be right either. They will say that it suffers the same problem as someone who has the 70th week still in the future. This is not true.

Gabriel says only 6 things will be accomplished for Daniel’s people and city WITHIN the 70 weeks. The destruction of the city and the temple is not one of those 6 things mentioned! Many people miss that.

I believe my interpretation of the 70 weeks prophecy fits nicely and seems to have no problems that I can see.

Those that believe in a future 70th week have a fatal error in their interpretation. Gabriel says all 6 things will be accomplished WITHIN the 70 weeks time frame. If Jesus is crucified AFTER/OUTSIDE the first 69 weeks, and He is also not crucified WITHIN the 70th week since that is still future, then He is not crucified WITHIN the time frame of the 70 weeks.

That is not possible. Gabriel says all 6 things will be accomplished WITHIN the 70 weeks. One of those 6 things is “atoning for iniquity”. That is the gospel message. Christ must do that on the cross WITHIN the 70 weeks. Verses 26A and 27A tell you He does it in the middle of the 70th week.

Any interpretation that moves the 70th week to the future contradicts what Gabriel says in Dan 9: 24.

I offer my interpretation because I think it fits the prophecy and has no issues as far as I can tell.

To those who are still looking for a 7 year treaty between Antichrist and Israel, in my opinion, it will never happen. Daniel 9: 27 is the only verse they get that from but they have misinterpreted it.

Christ was crucified during the 70th week and there is no future week.

"to finish the transgression, to put an end to sin, and to atone for iniquity, to bring in everlasting righteousness, to seal both vision and prophet, and to anoint a most holy place."

None of these things have come to pass for Israelites or Jerusalem. These are yet future.

 

[iamsoandso]

The new testament is the fulfillment of the Old Testament prophecies.

Joel 2:8=Acts 2:17 the prophecies afterwards that are spoken of are they fulfilled?

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

Let's say you're right and that's not the time of Jacob's trouble and it's really at the end of time, then where do you see TWO destruction's of Israel in the Old Testament?

A few things (assuming you are referring to what is stated in Dan9:26b):

--"the prince THAT SHALL COME" (<--the caps phrase would be superfluous-wording if it merely referred to the same "prince" mentioned in v.25 ["unto the messiah the prince shall be ____ Weeks" (a specific length of time; If meaning the same person, saying something like "he" or "the prince" again, would suffice to inform us he's the same one previously mentioned)])

--"the people OF the prince that shall come" are "THE PEOPLE OF" him, not him himself (and not existing on the earth at the same moment or time-frame); "the prince THAT SHALL COME" is far-future, but "the PEOPLE OF" [him] are who did the "shall destroy the city and the sanctuary" part; and note that this is AFTER "the messiah the prince" [v25] is "cut off, but not for himself [or, and have nothing]"

--"the prince THAT SHALL COME" [v26] is the "he" who "shall confirm the covenant FOR ONE WEEK [7 years]" [v27a] and this is FOLLOWING the "cut off" of the previously-mentioned "messiah"... IOW, the "FOR ONE WEEK [7-yrs]" comes AFTER the "shall be cut off" which is specifically stated to happen after the "62 Weeks" [69 Weeks total] have come to fulfillment. So how did Jesus do the "shall be cut off" and THEN do the "FOR ONE WEEK [7 yrs]" thing AFTER that?? [this doesn't seem to be the SEQUENCE that some are suggesting, on this thread]

 

[Locutus]

Joel 2:8=Acts 2:17 the prophecies afterwards that are spoken of are they fulfilled?

Hee, hee bro - I gotta love yer persistence - a Borg trait we admire.

Luke 21:22 For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled.

 

[iamsoandso]

Hee, hee bro - I gotta love yer persistence - a Borg trait we adt mire.

Luke 21:22 For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled.

meaning old testament prophecies or the ones the sons and daughters were said to then prophecy?

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

Luke 21:22 For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled.

Luke 21:22 is not saying "that everything that was prophesied [regarding this] are fulfilled [at this point in time]."

It's just saying that none of the prophecies being fulfilled AT THAT TIME [in the overall whole] can be SKIPPED OVER (they are a PART Of the "ALL THINGS WHICH ARE WRITTEN" that all need to be fulfilled... but not all at that moment in time/history; there's more yet to come, of it).


[in fact, I believe "the DAYS of vengeance" is distinct from "the DAY of vengeance"]

 

[Noose]

The specifics of the prophecy. It along with Revelation are sealed books. Therefore trying to explain the meanings of the symbolism is futile. Heard it all before!!

Daniel was a sealed prophesy until Revelation was written, Revelation is not a sealed book, it is an open book. John was specifically told not to seal the book. It explains Daniel and therefore now we can gain interpretation for both through the Lord.

The end times are not some days in the future towards the end of age, the end times is a long period of time starting in the 1st century to the end of age. This period is also called the day of the Lord or last days but also last day.

As much as the books are open, they are very spiritual and have nothing to do with what is being discussed in this thread.

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

^ EDIT: [in fact, I believe "the DAYS of vengeance" (Lk21:22) is distinct from "the DAY of vengeance" (Isa34:8,61:2,63:4,46:10)]

 

[KJV1611]

--"the prince THAT SHALL COME" [v26] is the "he" who "shall confirm the covenant FOR ONE WEEK [7 years]" [v27a] and this is FOLLOWING the "cut off" of the previously-mentioned "messiah"... IOW, the "FOR ONE WEEK [7-yrs]" comes AFTER the "shall be cut off" which is specifically stated to happen after the "62 Weeks" [69 Weeks total] have come to fulfillment. So how did Jesus do the "shall be cut off" and THEN do the "FOR ONE WEEK [7 yrs]" thing AFTER that?? [this doesn't seem to be the SEQUENCE that some are suggesting, on this thread]

I was referring to any Old Testament scriptures that deal with 2 destructions of Israel. There are none. All of those scriptures point to the same destruction of Israel.

As for when did Jesus do “the shall be cut off”. Jesus made his triumphant entry on Palm Sunday and exactly 7 days later (one week) he rose from the dead and confirmed the Abrahamic covenant.

Ezekiel’s day for a week has absolutely nothing to do with Daniels 70 weeks. In Daniel one week means 7 days... that’s just more dispensational smoke screens.

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

The end times are not some days in the future towards the end of age, the end times is a long period of time starting in the 1st century to the end of age. This period is also called the day of the Lord or last days but also last day.

I agree with you that "the day of the Lord" and "the last day" are referring to essentially the same time period (of LONG duration); but I disagree that it started in the first century, for the following reasons:

--Paul had to write a corrective to the Thessalonians who were being swayed by false conveyers convincing them [wrongly] that "the Day of the Lord IS PRESENT" (he's telling them WHY this is NOT SO; 2Th2)

--"the Day of the Lord" ARRIVES as "a thief IN THE NIGHT" [1Th5:2-3] with the arrival of the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR]" of many more "birth PANGS [PLURAL; Mt24:4-8/Mk13:5-8/Lk21:8-11 (and v.12+ says the 70ad events must take place BEFORE them)]" which "birth PANGS [PLURAL]" follow on from that INITIAL one (like birth pangs do!); IT [the time period] ARRIVES at the same time the "whose coming/advent/arrival/presence/parousia" of "the man of sin" does (comp. the "FOR ONE WEEK [7 yrs]" of Daniel 9:27a[verse26]