Did Jesus have a Hebrew name? Really?

[WomanLovesTX]

What's the deal with Hebrews 4:8?

KJV Heb 4:8 For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.

ESV Heb 4:8 For if Joshua had given them rest, God would not have spoken of another day later on.

YLT Heb 4:8 for if Joshua had given them rest, He would not concerning another day have spoken after these things;

LBP Heb 4:8 For if Joshua the son of Nun had given them rest, he would not afterward have spoken of another day.

RV Heb 4:8 For if Joshua had given them rest, he would not have spoken afterward of another day.

EMTV Heb 4:8 For if Joshua had given them rest, then He would not have spoken afterward of another day.

LITV Heb 4:8 For if Joshua gave them rest, then He would not have afterwards spoken about another day.

MKJV Heb 4:8 For if Joshua had given them rest, then He would not afterward have spoken of another day.

or what's up with Acts 7:45?

KJV Act 7:45 Which also our fathers that came after brought in with Jesus into the possession of the Gentiles, whom God drave out before the face of our fathers, unto the days of David;

ESV Act 7:45 Our fathers in turn brought it in with Joshua when they dispossessed the nations that God drove out before our fathers. So it was until the days of David,

YLT Act 7:45 which also our fathers having in succession received, did bring in with Joshua, into the possession of the nations whom God did drive out from the presence of our fathers, till the days of David,

LBP Act 7:45 And this very tabernacle, our fathers, together with Joshua, brought into the land which God took away from the peoples whom he drove out before them and gave it to them for an inheritance, and it was handed down until the days of David:

MKJV Act 7:45 which also was brought in, our fathers having received with Joshua, in the taking of possession of the nations, whom God drove out from the face of our fathers, until the days of David,

Whoops!! Did the translators of KJV not understand which man was being spoken of or did they rename Joshua, with the name Jesus, or is it Jesus renamed Joshua?

Does anyone have the scoop on this bizarre name change?

 

[danschance]

He spoke to me the other day when I was strugging with giving a sermon on James 1. He spoke to me in english,

Yes, God speaks to me in English as well.

 

[iamsoandso]

it really should be simple,,,Christ was crucified,,the apostles and disciples all took off in different directions preaching the word of god in Hebrew to the gentiles.,,,,now all the gentiles were scratching their heads for a generation or two asking each other "what language are they speaking?",,then some of them realized they were speaking Hebrew and so they set up schools all over the gentile world and began teaching Hebrew to the gentiles so they would understand the truth and obtain grace. as time went on all the gentiles became master students at Hebrew and were saved,,,,,and if that don't make since,,,well we could always believe (in acts 2;6),,,,where every one heard the word of god,,,"in his own language",,,but then that would take an act of god wouldn't it?

 

[presidente]

PS. People in Judea in Jesus time spoke Greek. The common people also spoke Aramaic. Hebrew was reserved for the synagogues, and most people didn't understand a word, just like when the Catholic Church foisted Latin on the world till only a few decades ago.

Paul addressed the crowd in Hebrew (Aramaic?) before he was arrested. Edersheim's work says that they spoke Aramaic, but used Hebrew in the synagogue with Aramaic interpreters. A speaker might speak in Hebrew, a translator might translate it.

If it's true that the average Jewish boy in Judea memorized the Torah in Hebrew, starting with Leviticus, then the men would have known Hebrew. Edersheim says the synagogues in the Greek world used the Septuigint, arguing minute points of doctrine from the peculiarities of the translation similar to the way Hebrew-reading Jews did.

But there may be some evidence that Hebrew was a spoken, living language among the people for the land throughout the captivity and until afterward. A friend of mine who has a masters in Hebrew translation who studied in Israel informs me that there is a reference to a Jewish scholar (who they caleld a 'rabbi') who couldn't think of a Hebrew word, so he asked his maid. He was descended from the group that came back from Babylon, while the lower classes and the surrounding nations spoke Hebrew languages. It could be that Hebrew was spoken in areas further from Jerusalem as well.

The reason the name "Jesus" is used is because the Germanic scholars were the original ones to start translating the Bible from Greek. Their "Y" was pronounced "J". And so the tradition has continued.

I thought the KJV initially had an I in there and in several other words instead of a 'J', and that English had developed, somehow a 'J' sound for words that started with 'I'.

I do find Ἰησοῦ in my Greek Bible, from Matt 1:1 to Revelation 22:21

The Talmud apparently calls the Lord "Yesu", but they made a bad acrostic out of the letters of His name. They were known for messing people's names up if they didn't like them. We even see this in the Old Testament. Names like Bar Kochba and Beelzebub were messed up like that. I believe I've read that Ishbosheth could have been perjorative modification of Ishbaal.

 

[presidente]

What's the deal with Hebrews 4:8?

KJV Heb 4:8 For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.

ESV Heb 4:8 For if Joshua had given them rest, God would not have spoken of another day later on.

YLT Heb 4:8 for if Joshua had given them rest, He would not concerning another day have spoken after these things;

LBP Heb 4:8 For if Joshua the son of Nun had given them rest, he would not afterward have spoken of another day.

RV Heb 4:8 For if Joshua had given them rest, he would not have spoken afterward of another day.

EMTV Heb 4:8 For if Joshua had given them rest, then He would not have spoken afterward of another day.

LITV Heb 4:8 For if Joshua gave them rest, then He would not have afterwards spoken about another day.

MKJV Heb 4:8 For if Joshua had given them rest, then He would not afterward have spoken of another day.

or what's up with Acts 7:45?

KJV Act 7:45 Which also our fathers that came after brought in with Jesus into the possession of the Gentiles, whom God drave out before the face of our fathers, unto the days of David;

ESV Act 7:45 Our fathers in turn brought it in with Joshua when they dispossessed the nations that God drove out before our fathers. So it was until the days of David,

YLT Act 7:45 which also our fathers having in succession received, did bring in with Joshua, into the possession of the nations whom God did drive out from the presence of our fathers, till the days of David,

LBP Act 7:45 And this very tabernacle, our fathers, together with Joshua, brought into the land which God took away from the peoples whom he drove out before them and gave it to them for an inheritance, and it was handed down until the days of David:

MKJV Act 7:45 which also was brought in, our fathers having received with Joshua, in the taking of possession of the nations, whom God drove out from the face of our fathers, until the days of David,

Whoops!! Did the translators of KJV not understand which man was being spoken of or did they rename Joshua, with the name Jesus, or is it Jesus renamed Joshua?

Does anyone have the scoop on this bizarre name change?

They may have been such scholars that in their minds, Joshua and Jesus were the same word. They didn't keep the Hebrew names from the Old Testament. They Graicized names, using Elias as a name for Elijah in the New Testament.

 

[danschance]

Paul addressed the crowd in Hebrew (Aramaic?) before he was arrested. Edersheim's work says that they spoke Aramaic, but used Hebrew in the synagogue with Aramaic interpreters. A speaker might speak in Hebrew, a translator might translate it.

If it's true that the average Jewish boy in Judea memorized the Torah in Hebrew, starting with Leviticus, then the men would have known Hebrew. Edersheim says the synagogues in the Greek world used the Septuigint, arguing minute points of doctrine from the peculiarities of the translation similar to the way Hebrew-reading Jews did.

But there may be some evidence that Hebrew was a spoken, living language among the people for the land throughout the captivity and until afterward. A friend of mine who has a masters in Hebrew translation who studied in Israel informs me that there is a reference to a Jewish scholar (who they caleld a 'rabbi') who couldn't think of a Hebrew word, so he asked his maid. He was descended from the group that came back from Babylon, while the lower classes and the surrounding nations spoke Hebrew languages. It could be that Hebrew was spoken in areas further from Jerusalem as well.



I thought the KJV initially had an I in there and in several other words instead of a 'J', and that English had developed, somehow a 'J' sound for words that started with 'I'.



The Talmud apparently calls the Lord "Yesu", but they made a bad acrostic out of the letters of His name. They were known for messing people's names up if they didn't like them. We even see this in the Old Testament. Names like Bar Kochba and Beelzebub were messed up like that. I believe I've read that Ishbosheth could have been perjorative modification of Ishbaal.

The word "Torah" means the first five books of the OT. I find it hard to believe that all the boys in Jerusalem had them all memorized, word for word in Hebrew or any other language.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

What's the deal with Hebrews 4:8?

KJV Heb 4:8 For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.

ESV Heb 4:8 For if Joshua had given them rest, God would not have spoken of another day later on.

YLT Heb 4:8 for if Joshua had given them rest, He would not concerning another day have spoken after these things;

LBP Heb 4:8 For if Joshua the son of Nun had given them rest, he would not afterward have spoken of another day.

RV Heb 4:8 For if Joshua had given them rest, he would not have spoken afterward of another day.

EMTV Heb 4:8 For if Joshua had given them rest, then He would not have spoken afterward of another day.

LITV Heb 4:8 For if Joshua gave them rest, then He would not have afterwards spoken about another day.

MKJV Heb 4:8 For if Joshua had given them rest, then He would not afterward have spoken of another day.

or what's up with Acts 7:45?

KJV Act 7:45 Which also our fathers that came after brought in with Jesus into the possession of the Gentiles, whom God drave out before the face of our fathers, unto the days of David;

ESV Act 7:45 Our fathers in turn brought it in with Joshua when they dispossessed the nations that God drove out before our fathers. So it was until the days of David,

YLT Act 7:45 which also our fathers having in succession received, did bring in with Joshua, into the possession of the nations whom God did drive out from the presence of our fathers, till the days of David,

LBP Act 7:45 And this very tabernacle, our fathers, together with Joshua, brought into the land which God took away from the peoples whom he drove out before them and gave it to them for an inheritance, and it was handed down until the days of David:

MKJV Act 7:45 which also was brought in, our fathers having received with Joshua, in the taking of possession of the nations, whom God drove out from the face of our fathers, until the days of David,

Whoops!! Did the translators of KJV not understand which man was being spoken of or did they rename Joshua, with the name Jesus, or is it Jesus renamed Joshua?

Does anyone have the scoop on this bizarre name change?

Jesus is a transliteration of the greek word iesus, (the I was changed to a J.)

Joshua is the actual translation of the word iesus in greek.

Interestingly enough, the same goes with the word james. The greek word translated james actually means Jacob.

so why did the KJV use the word james??

 

[phil112]

Jesus is a transliteration of the greek word iesus, (the I was changed to a J.)

Joshua is the actual translation of the word iesus in greek.

Interestingly enough, the same goes with the word james. The greek word translated james actually means Jacob.

so why did the KJV use the word james??

Give it up, EG. They still call Paul, Saul!

 

[Hizikyah]

The word "Torah" means the first five books of the OT. I find it hard to believe that all the boys in Jerusalem had them all memorized, word for word in Hebrew or any other language.

Guaranteed every student of "rabbi" Gamaliel had to be able to recite the entire 5 books off memory alone.

As a world, Having distractions has lessened our studies and info at our fingertips has made us take it for granted.

 

[Hizikyah]

Give it up, EG. They still call Paul, Saul!

Where in the Scriptures is Shaul's name changed to Paul?

I know Shimon's name is changed to Kepha, but where is Shaul's change?

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Give it up, EG. They still call Paul, Saul!

well saul was his hebrew name, Paul was his roman name

I have no problem with a hebrew person calling God his hebrew name, but when they speak to us in englsih they could respect us and use his english name, instead of disrespecting us.

It is like when I lived in texas. I was dishonored so many times by spanish speaking people talking and throwing english words in every now and then, I could not understand a word they were saying, they were mocking me,

but these people do not see that, they are too self focused

 

[Hizikyah]

Psalm 105:1, "Give thanks to Yahweh! Call upon His Name! Make known what He has done among the nations!"

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Psalm 105:1, "Give thanks to Yahweh! Call upon His Name! Make known what He has done among the nations!"

if your going to use hebrew, then translate the whole verse in hebrew, not just one name.

Your being hypocritical and offensive when yuo do this.

Psalms was written in hebrew, not in english and one word in hebrew.

 

[posthuman]

Praise ye the Lord.
Praise ye the name of the Lord;
praise him, O ye servants of the Lord.
Ye that stand in the house of the Lord,
in the courts of the house of our God,
praise the Lord;
for the Lord is good:
sing praises unto his name;
for it is pleasant.

(Psalm 135:1-3)

 

[Hizikyah]

if your going to use hebrew, then translate the whole verse in hebrew, not just one name.

Your being hypocritical and offensive when yuo do this.

Psalms was written in hebrew, not in english and one word in hebrew.

Why does the Name of the Creator both you so much that you are fighting me about it on multiple threads?

 

[kennethcadwell]

Where in the Scriptures is Shaul's name changed to Paul?

I know Shimon's name is changed to Kepha, but where is Shaul's change?

Acts 13:9 Then Saul, who also is called Paul, filled with the Holy Spirit, looked intently at him.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Why does the Name of the Creator both you so much that you are fighting me about it on multiple threads?

because

1. Your not giving me his name, your giving the name given to him by moses
2. Your holding yourself up. and acting childish by only using behrew on some names, (which is not really even hebrew, but an english transliteration of the hebrew word, which makes it even more astounding) and judging us who only call him by the english name as translated from the hebrew name (Lord)

your using a name given by man, and claiming this is Gods name, when Even john said NO ONE KNEW HIS NAME.

He is my Lord. I do not have to call him YHWH, God would not offend me by saying his name is YHWH, why do yuo think you have the right to do this?

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Acts 13:9 Then Saul, who also is called Paul, filled with the Holy Spirit, looked intently at him.

that does not say his name was changed, But it uses both of his names..

 

[Hizikyah]

because

1. Your not giving me his name, your giving the name given to him by moses
2. Your holding yourself up. and acting childish by only using behrew on some names, (which is not really even hebrew, but an english transliteration of the hebrew word, which makes it even more astounding) and judging us who only call him by the english name as translated from the hebrew name (Lord)

your using a name given by man, and claiming this is Gods name, when Even john said NO ONE KNEW HIS NAME.

He is my Lord. I do not have to call him YHWH, God would not offend me by saying his name is YHWH, why do yuo think you have the right to do this?

You have free will, call Him what you choose, what you call Him is not my choice.

SO when the Creator says, "I am Yahweh, that is MY NAME" that is not His name? And Mosheh did not give Yahweh that Name, Yahweh told it to Mosheh:

Exodus 3:14-15, "Then Yahweh said to Mosheh: I am Who I am. And He said: This is what you are to say to the children of Israyl; the I am has sent me to you. Yahweh also said to Mosheh: This also shall you say to the children of Israyl; YAHWEH, the Heavenly Father of your fathers, the Mighty One of Abraham, the Mighty One of Isaac, and the Mighty One of Yaaqob, has sent me to you. THIS IS MY NAME FOREVER-- and this is MY MEMORIAL: the Name by which I am to be remembered by, from generation to generation, for all generations."

Isayah 42:8, "I am Yahweh, that is MY NAME; and My glory I will not give to another, nor My praise to graven images."

There are over 1,000 time the Creator says His Name is YHWH...

 

[Hizikyah]

Acts 13:9 Then Saul, who also is called Paul, filled with the Holy Spirit, looked intently at him.

Paul is from Paulus which is a Roman name, Shaul/Paul was a pharisee and a Roman citizen, Paulus was his roman name, most likely from a young age if not birth.