Faith is a fruit of the Spirit, heresy is a work of the flesh (Gal.5)

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Apr 13, 2011
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It means we cannot say that this is a universal call....
You say it is not a universal call. The bible says otherwise.

Acts 17:30) And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent:

1 Tim 2:4) Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.

2 Pet 3:9) The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
 
Jun 24, 2010
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Abiding
rev. 3: 20Behold, I stand at the door, and knock: if any man hear my voice, and open the door, I will come in to him, and will sup with him, and he with me.
This was written to the Church of Laodicea. what does saying this was written to the Laodicean Church mean?
I believe it is of better understanding to take (Rev 3:19-22) as instruction and edification to the (7) churches, summing them up as a whole, because of (v.22 - churches). If you take (v.20) and isolate the church at Laodicea, you can come to a distorted imbalance or some fanciful conclusion about Christ's relationship to that church and attach a false doctrine or have Christ violate a promise in leaving and forsaking that church. If you take (v.19-22) and apply it to the (7) churches as a whole, then you can see the purpose of these admonishments and edification to the church as a whole with their local and timely problems that the Spirit is testifying against them.

Concerning (v.20), I do not think for a moment that Jesus Christ intended for that not to be applied to unsaved sinners, who may be in these churches and have no fellowship with Him. The reason why I believe this, is because of the commission that Christ has given to the church to preach the gospel to every creature, to seek and save the lost (with Christ as their example), with instructions to go into the highways and byways and compel them to come in that God's house might be full and because of the work of the ministry that includes Jesus Christ making disciples to be fishers of men as they follow Him.

There are just too many strange things said about this Laodicean church when you isolate (v.20) to this church alone. Prove me wrong.
 
Jun 24, 2010
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You say it is not a universal call. The bible says otherwise.

Acts 17:30) And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent:

1 Tim 2:4) Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.

2 Pet 3:9) The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
Shroon2, I love you as a brother and the work of the cross has to be universal, for Christ was the propitiation for our sins, but not for ours only, but also for the sins of the world (1Jn 2:2). God's call must go out to all men everywhere for all have sinned and this call must be taken into all the world by the church, who are in Christ's stead as God's 'called out' ones. We as God's called out ones have a call to take God's call through the gospel to all men.
 

tribesman

Senior Member
Oct 13, 2011
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Acts 17:30) And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent:
Correct, this is a universal call. But it still does not imply the ability to repent of all who hears it.

God commands us to be perfect AS HE IS perfect (Matt.5:48). Do we have that ability?

1 Tim 2:4) Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
I have responded to your claims about this scripture earlier.

2 Pet 3:9) The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
The us-ward here is referring to the church.
 

tribesman

Senior Member
Oct 13, 2011
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People caught up in this world, who do not seek God, will not receive holy spirit.
Not only "caught up in this world". It means all unregenerate. They do not see the Kingdom of God, because they are not regenerate.

The world cannot receive the Spirit. That is what Jesus said and I will go with that.

What's to explain? They were righteous before God. But they were not born again because it was not available to be born again before the day of pentecost.
So you mean that one can be just and righteous before God without being regenerate?
 
Apr 13, 2011
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Not only "caught up in this world". It means all unregenerate. They do not see the Kingdom of God, because they are not regenerate.

The world cannot receive the Spirit. That is what Jesus said and I will go with that.

So you mean that one can be just and righteous before God without being regenerate?
It simply was not possible to be "regenerate" before it was available. It was not available until the day of pentecost.
 
A

A-Omega

Guest
See this one above? Or you still don't get it? Well, that's exactly my point! QED. I could also go on writing words like straw man, dead wrong, out of context and diversion every other line and commend my own views as scriptural beyond proving. It'd benefit nothing to the thread! And as for your dislike of calvinism, I couldn't care less. Who cares? It's off-topic. It's not about someone being biased, we are all biased. It's not even about being right or wrong, it is about adding relevant and beneficial material to the thread. OK? Nuff' said about that.
Wrong. Once again, I started off talking about the verse and topic being discussed: the Father drawing people to Christ. YOU responded to me by saying Romans 3 clearly substantiates your interpretation of that verse (not once, but twice, even asking me "what about Romans 3"). I then responded to you showing how you are using Romans 3 out of context, and then demonstrating, contextually what the proper interpretation is. I also added my comments on total depravity because that it obviously what you were alluding to in all of your posts and your use of Romans 3.

Since I have given in-depth Biblical responses and examples, you have just chosen to now say "you're ranting" or "you just don't like Calvinism" or making false accusations that I do not take the Bible seriously, which again, are just diversions from actually showing me and the rest of the forum your exegesis on Romans 3, Psalm 14, Psalm 10 or Acts 10 -namely the passages in question. Now to say that I am going "off topic" is once again, just wrong. You introduced Romans 3, asked for my response and I responded.

And I think this greatly benefits the thread because proper Biblical interpretation is always beneficial! You seem to just be getting snippy now because you have been called on it, frankly.

The real serious questions here centers around regeneration, if there be various forms of righteousness in the OT vs the NT, if the gospel was something "new" that came with the earthly ministry of Christ. For example, for someone to say that someone is "just" in biblical terms, it must always principally mean the very same thing. The OT Saints must have been just, righteous, on the very same terms as the NT Saints.
You are confusing "just" with "justified before God." The OT Saints were justified before God believing on the promise of a future redeemer (Job 19) just as present day saints are saved on the believe the promise was fulfilled 2,000 years ago. And "the just" is a tile for Jesus as used in the book of Acts. So to say the word "just" always has the same meaning is not really the case. Cornelius was just, but he was not a believer in Jesus Christ.

To say that Cornelius was a just man who feared God and yet at the same time maintain that he was NOT regenerate in that state, or that he was NOT regenerate when receiving the Spirit will cause enormous problems in systematically understanding scripture.
What problems?? Cornelius feared God and had not heard the Gospel yet. He had not received the Holy Spirit yet. (It came in verse 44). What you are attempting is called eisegesis -namely injecting things into the Biblical text that is not there. There is nothing in Acts 10 about Cornelius being "regenerate" before he meets Peter. But we do know he was not a believer! He had not believed the Gospel of Jesus Christ. That is what we do know. We also know he was saved in verse 44. Can you share your interpretation of this chapter without adding events to the text that are not there??? Because that is how we properly interpret scripture.

The only time "regeneration" is used in the Bible with any relation to salvation is in the context of the "washing of the Holy Spirit." Well, again, we know when Cornelius received the Holy Spirit- verse 44. And he was fearing and seeking God well before then. Again, this is your conundrum. You are running into contradictions because you are starting with a principle that is not biblical. You believe we have to have some special "regeneration" process via the Holy Spirit in order to seek God. Yet Cornelius was clearly seeking God before he received the Holy Spirit. Your theory has lost its internal logic. The Bible is never wrong, so by default, your theory must be.


Actually, the same thing applies to the disciples. Some will even say that the disciples, also called apostles, were not born again before they received the Spirit at the day of Pentecost.

Do you see why some people will object to the latter notions?
The Disciples and Cornelius are not analogous. The Disciples were hearing the Gospel every day for 3 1/2 years. They already believed. Furthermore Jesus told them before He died that the Holy Spirit would give them supernatural power and help them remember things to write scripture. So the Holy Ghost was doing many more things in their lives than just saving them (see John 20 where Jesus breathes the Holy Spirit onto the disciples).

With Cornelius we know he was seeking God but did not know the Gospel. Peter then preaches to him once and he believes and is saved (receiving the Holy Spirit). The entire context is salvation. They "heard the word." The disciples clearly understand this because the next thing that happens is Cornelius gets baptized. Again, this chapter refutes your theory. It has nothing to do with me "disliking" anything. I don't dislike Calvinism. It just does not stand up to Biblical scrutiny.
 
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A

Abiding

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Tribesman as i said ive always avoided this discussion. But this thread caused me to go and do the work.
Turns out that i am an arminian, who believes in prevenient grace. Thanks for the thread...ive needed to
do this for years...but am glad i didnt until now. I had no bias. Now i know the proper label i wear. ha!
 

tribesman

Senior Member
Oct 13, 2011
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Tribesman as i said ive always avoided this discussion. But this thread caused me to go and do the work. Turns out that i am an arminian, who believes in prevenient grace. Thanks for the thread...ive needed to do this for years...but am glad i didnt until now. I had no bias. Now i know the proper label i wear. ha!
This is not a light matter and it is not something that all people think very much about. Upon considering it there would be those who came to the same stance as you. Let me just ask you this, is it important to you that it is in man's hands to be the determinate or conclusive factor in the salvation equation? Man's decision, or acceptance, would then be conditional in this work, not the work of Christ alone.

Would you say that there is no problem with such view, with seeing salvation as conditional on any thing IN the sinner (even if one might argue that believing and receiving is not works, there is still that condition in man for the desired response and outcome). Will not such view have the ultimate and inevitable consequence of saying that the atoning blood of Christ IN AND BY ITSELF is actually as such NOT sufficient to redeem a single soul? I say: yes, this is the consequence of it.

As for me, I see no reason to believe that Christ died for a single soul that was given Him by the Father in vain. Or that the work of Christ would have failed for any single such soul. That is why I believe that salvation was in full conditioned on the person and work of Christ alone. That He secured salvation for His elect covenant people. He did not make salvation merely "available" for anyone who would use some "ability" to receive same better than others, He secured salvation for those that will be saved.

If you had a reason to check things up what you really believe, fine, maybe also a reason for further studying and research as well?
 

tribesman

Senior Member
Oct 13, 2011
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It simply was not possible to be "regenerate" before it was available. It was not available until the day of pentecost.
The baptism of the Spirit was not available before the day of Pentecost, but regeneration must have been. Jesus said that Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, and the prophets belongs to the kingdom of God (Luke 13:28-29)

How would you explain that the Old Covenant Saints were saved if they were not regenerated? Were they just "renewed" but not really regenerated? Were they just "moved upon" by the Spirit but not indwelt by the Spirit? If so, must not there be a difference in the way of salvation between the covenants?
 

tribesman

Senior Member
Oct 13, 2011
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inb4 dispensational bible blender-time
Dunno if that's the case with shroom2, but definitely the outlook on this matter would be similar, if not identical, with the dispensationalists.
 

tribesman

Senior Member
Oct 13, 2011
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Wrong. Once again, I started off talking about the verse and topic being discussed: the Father drawing people to Christ. YOU responded to me by saying Romans 3 clearly substantiates your interpretation of that verse (not once, but twice, even asking me "what about Romans 3"). I then responded to you showing how you are using Romans 3 out of context, and then demonstrating, contextually what the proper interpretation is. I also added my comments on total depravity because that it obviously what you were alluding to in all of your posts and your use of Romans 3.
Yeah? This is YOUR opinion. It does not make it right because you repeatedly say it is right. Your posts here are nothing but your views and opinions (as you are entitled to have, of course).

Since I have given in-depth Biblical responses and examples, you have just chosen to now say "you're ranting" or "you just don't like Calvinism" or making false accusations that I do not take the Bible seriously, which again, are just diversions from actually showing me and the rest of the forum your exegesis on Romans 3, Psalm 14, Psalm 10 or Acts 10 -namely the passages in question. Now to say that I am going "off topic" is once again, just wrong. You introduced Romans 3, asked for my response and I responded. And I think this greatly benefits the thread because proper Biblical interpretation is always beneficial! You seem to just be getting snippy now because you have been called on it, frankly.
Probably it could be said a little nicer. I'm just trying to get a simple point across about how poor debating gets the thread at loggerheads. Since you're into this "I am right, you are wrong" kind of debating. We have different views, we do not agree with each others views, alright. No need for anyone of us to put in the message "I am right, you are wrong" or commend oneself every other line. But you do this. You even say that your posts are "in-depth"(!!!). Maybe in your eyes then, and maybe in your take of what "in depth" is, but I (and I'm sure I'm not alone) don't see these kind of posts as "in-depth" by any stretch. Sure, everyone think that their view is right, that's why they believe in it. But few see the need to frequently repeat that. That would just be a poor way of debating. See this for example:

...I then responded...and then demonstrating, contextually what the proper interpretation is...I have given in-depth Biblical responses and examples...proper Biblical interpretation...that is how we properly interpret scripture...
So what you say is "proper", and thereby unquestionable true, because you say so? Or are you some kind of expert that we should listen to because you have some special, objective and authoritative knowledge? Is that what you are saying? If so, I suppose you show us your credentials then. Otherwise I don't get the point with these claims.

Bur let's have a look at this:

You are confusing "just" with "justified before God." The OT Saints were justified before God believing on the promise of a future redeemer (Job 19) just as present day saints are saved on the believe the promise was fulfilled 2,000 years ago. And "the just" is a tile for Jesus as used in the book of Acts. So to say the word "just" always has the same meaning is not really the case. Cornelius was just, but he was not a believer in Jesus Christ.
"Confusing"? Can you name one example in scripture where the word "just" was not related to being justified in that sense. As an example it says about Noah that he was "a just man and perfect" (Gen..6:9). And, yes, "just" is also a title for Christ, but that's another topic.

What problems?? Cornelius feared God and had not heard the Gospel yet. He had not received the Holy Spirit yet. (It came in verse 44). What you are attempting is called eisegesis -namely injecting things into the Biblical text that is not there. There is nothing in Acts 10 about Cornelius being "regenerate" before he meets Peter. But we do know he was not a believer! He had not believed the Gospel of Jesus Christ. That is what we do know. We also know he was saved in verse 44. Can you share your interpretation of this chapter without adding events to the text that are not there??? Because that is how we properly interpret scripture.
You say I add "events", and yet you say of Cornelius that "we do know that he was not a believer". This is what you are saying. Not the Bible. But think about this for a while, if Cornelius had heard much enough of the Word of God, as the God-fearer he was, then he would also have known about the coming Messiah. To portray Cornelius as a lost sinner, with all the qualities and characteristics he yet possessed, before he met Peter, is to say that he pleased God in the flesh. This would be to contradict a lot of scripture. So much for your talk about eisegesis. And as for the gospel, do you believe that there was no gospel preached at all before Jesus earthly ministry? Is that what you imply?

The only time "regeneration" is used in the Bible with any relation to salvation is in the context of the "washing of the Holy Spirit." Well, again, we know when Cornelius received the Holy Spirit- verse 44. And he was fearing and seeking God well before then. Again, this is your conundrum. You are running into contradictions because you are starting with a principle that is not biblical. You believe we have to have some special "regeneration" process via the Holy Spirit in order to seek God. Yet Cornelius was clearly seeking God before he received the Holy Spirit. Your theory has lost its internal logic. The Bible is never wrong, so by default, your theory must be.
Your views - again. The Word of God is clear on that all lost sinners are dead in their trespasses and sins, and that they cannot understand the things of the Spirit of God. Paul spoke of the character of himself and fellow believers before regeneration as obviously not interested in seeking God (1Cor.2:14, Eph.2.1-3, Tit.3.3). So, that is not an ability that they possess in that state. Cornelius prayed always before he met Peter and his prayers were accepted and approved before God, he also did righteousness before he met Peter, and Peter acknowledged that Cornelius was already accepted with God (perfect tense, passive voice). In short, Cornelius showed many qualities and characteristics that an unregenerate and natural man do not have. God would not have accepted a wicked and unregenerate man. As for Tit.3.5 it says "by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost".

The Disciples and Cornelius are not analogous. The Disciples were hearing the Gospel every day for 3 1/2 years. They already believed. Furthermore Jesus told them before He died that the Holy Spirit would give them supernatural power and help them remember things to write scripture. So the Holy Ghost was doing many more things in their lives than just saving them (see John 20 where Jesus breathes the Holy Spirit onto the disciples).
Right. There is a difference between the Disciples and Cornelius in that sense. But the question still remains if the Disciples were born again before or after their Spirit baptism.

With Cornelius we know he was seeking God but did not know the Gospel. Peter then preaches to him once and he believes and is saved (receiving the Holy Spirit). The entire context is salvation. They "heard the word." The disciples clearly understand this because the next thing that happens is Cornelius gets baptized. Again, this chapter refutes your theory. It has nothing to do with me "disliking" anything. I don't dislike Calvinism. It just does not stand up to Biblical scrutiny.
Not "we", you, and your opinion, again. The word of God is plain. The kingdom of God cannot be seen by a man who is not born again (John 3:3), because he cannot and will not see it. If a man believes on Jesus, he show indication that he is born again (1 John 5:1). If he loves the brethren, he show indication that he is born again (1 John 4:7). If he does righteousness, he show indication that he is born again (1 John 2:29). These are all indications that someone is regenerate.
 
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Apr 13, 2011
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Dunno if that's the case with shroom2, but definitely the outlook on this matter would be similar, if not identical, with the dispensationalists.
Of course I'm a dispensationalist. It's what the bible teaches.