My comments were clearly addressing only one part of Romans:
(Rom 5:8) But God commends his own love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
Within the context, we must ask:
1) To whom was Paul writing? No to all mankind but to believers. In this case, the Saints who were in Rome. (Do you deny that he was writing to believers in Rome? Rom 1:7 to all that are in Rome, beloved of God, called to be saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. )
2) Then the "us" are the believers in Rome. The message then has applications to all other believers, in all the various assemblies. (This truth still stands)
3) The "we" are the same people as are the "us". (This truth still stands)
4) You cannot apply this to all of humanity, since all of humanity was not being written to, in this particular context. There are many verses of Scripture that are to all mankind but this is not one of them. (This truth still stands)
If you do not understand hermenuetics and do not keep verses within intended contexts, you cannot truly understand the message.
I say this with all humility, in the hopes of being helpful, to those who truly wish to learn. No man has arrived, when it comes to knowledge and we should all strive to be ever learning.
I do appreciate your responding and giving your explanations to the following: Romans 9:13 and Jeremiah 49:10.
I do not disagree with some of the points you were making, However, you are really going out of your way to deny that God has a Holy Hatred. His hatred is indeed not like ours, it is a perfect hatred. We as mortal, sinful, beings, cannot hope to understand what Holy anger, hatred and vengeance really are. We do good to even scratch the surface of what Holiness really is. However, you cannot say that God did these things because He loved them. This eliminates any distinction between His outpouring of emotions for the saved and the unsaved. Yes He has done to the enemies what His Holy Justice requires but you cannot say that He loves those whom He intends to destroy. This would make God conflicted.
You summarized by saying:
Overall
God being just, does not mean He does not have love. (I never claimed He didn't.... So where did you get this?)
The punishment of the wicked by Him is not a sign that He hates them. (Oh, so now you would have God killing and punishing those He loves?) There is a consequence for every action. For whatever a man sows, that he will also reap (Galatians 6:7) Agree, that man will reap what he sows. God's Holy Justice must be satisfied.
Then you said I should not use the precept that God hates. Why would I repent for a term, that God Himself has used. The word hate is used in Scripture, King James Version, 87 times, in 85 verses, either by God or by man. The word hated is used 60 times in 56 verses, either by God or man.
(Rom 5:8) But God commends his own love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
Within the context, we must ask:
1) To whom was Paul writing? No to all mankind but to believers. In this case, the Saints who were in Rome. (Do you deny that he was writing to believers in Rome? Rom 1:7 to all that are in Rome, beloved of God, called to be saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. )
2) Then the "us" are the believers in Rome. The message then has applications to all other believers, in all the various assemblies. (This truth still stands)
3) The "we" are the same people as are the "us". (This truth still stands)
4) You cannot apply this to all of humanity, since all of humanity was not being written to, in this particular context. There are many verses of Scripture that are to all mankind but this is not one of them. (This truth still stands)
If you do not understand hermenuetics and do not keep verses within intended contexts, you cannot truly understand the message.
I say this with all humility, in the hopes of being helpful, to those who truly wish to learn. No man has arrived, when it comes to knowledge and we should all strive to be ever learning.
I do appreciate your responding and giving your explanations to the following: Romans 9:13 and Jeremiah 49:10.
I do not disagree with some of the points you were making, However, you are really going out of your way to deny that God has a Holy Hatred. His hatred is indeed not like ours, it is a perfect hatred. We as mortal, sinful, beings, cannot hope to understand what Holy anger, hatred and vengeance really are. We do good to even scratch the surface of what Holiness really is. However, you cannot say that God did these things because He loved them. This eliminates any distinction between His outpouring of emotions for the saved and the unsaved. Yes He has done to the enemies what His Holy Justice requires but you cannot say that He loves those whom He intends to destroy. This would make God conflicted.
You summarized by saying:
Overall
God being just, does not mean He does not have love. (I never claimed He didn't.... So where did you get this?)
The punishment of the wicked by Him is not a sign that He hates them. (Oh, so now you would have God killing and punishing those He loves?) There is a consequence for every action. For whatever a man sows, that he will also reap (Galatians 6:7) Agree, that man will reap what he sows. God's Holy Justice must be satisfied.
Then you said I should not use the precept that God hates. Why would I repent for a term, that God Himself has used. The word hate is used in Scripture, King James Version, 87 times, in 85 verses, either by God or by man. The word hated is used 60 times in 56 verses, either by God or man.
I don't want anyone to think I am saying God hates as we hate. God saying that He hates, must be understood within the harmony of all His Holy Attributes. John Gill expressed God hating Esau, as a form of "neglect". Therefore, God only does positive things for those He loves and neglects those He hates. It has been expressed by many other writers in various ways. But it still stands, that the Scriptures say that God hated. I do not fill qualified to express in what way this is to be understood. John Gill believed it to mean that whom God hated, He passed by. This shows that John Gill believed in "elective grace". Therefore, Gill was equating hate to all of the non-elect of God. Hate is a strong word. God used it in the Old and New Testaments. This cannot be denied but let every person who witnesses, be cautious of how it is discussed.
However, if John Gill's explanation is correct, then God's love or hate is tied to elective grace, the Eternal Convenient of Redemption".
Following this thought, a question needs to be raised. If indeed God loves everyone, then why did He only elect some to salvation and pass by others? The ones on the "loves everybody side", like to throw around John 3:16.... as if it single-handedly answers all questions of Soteriology, while ignoring passages that seem to teach otherwise.
Again I will ask, If Election is not the Truth, then give an interpretation to these verses?
John 6:37) All that the Father gives to me shall come to me; and him that is coming to me I will in no wise cast out.
John 6:39) And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise
it at the last day,
John 6:44) No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.
John 6:65) And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father.
We all await an enlightened answer.