House of Cornelius and the law

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

Dan_473

Senior Member
Mar 11, 2014
9,054
1,051
113
Hi,

Yes...we Christians have over-used (or misused) various Biblical (or allegedly Biblical) slogans for FAR too long!

Seriously....look at how our Torah-obedient 1st century faith has evolved into a generally Torah-ignorant (and sometimes explicitly anti-Torah) expression over the past 2000 years.

Sorry if I get a bit exasperated by the extent to which we've drifted...maybe I can actually help (in some small way) to hasten our prophesied return to YHVH in repentant obedience to Torah.

best...
bibleGuy
well, I disagree

For the whole law is fulfilled in one word, in this: “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.”

this is the high-point of what Paul was leading up to Galatians... I can't think of how it could be over-used.




the 1st century church had loads of Jewish people in it, and many were "zealous for the law". but shortly after that, few Jews... just gentiles being led by the Spirit.
 
Jan 27, 2013
4,769
18
0
no you should believe in a saviour. etc if the law can be bent to human standers ,then its not a law for all. lol etc
 
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
This is eisegesis. The discussion in Galatians is not about faithless obedience to the Law (whatever that is; Paul didn't use the term or the concept) and faithful obedience. It is about justification and, more specifically, sanctification (ongoing growth in Christ-likeness), either by the works of the Law or by faith. The dichotomy is between faith and law-following, not faith and non-faith. If Paul meant faith-filled obedience to Law versus faithless obedience, he would have said so.



Again, you're reading 'faithless' into the text. Because you are doing this, the rest of your argument is groundless.



Interesting idea, which might have some validity if Paul had not already made it clear in 3:3 and 3:5 that sanctification is by faith, not by Law. His point was that obedience to the Law benefited them nothing! In thinking it did, they fell from grace! That's the point of the letter. To reframe it and claim that Paul was trying to tell them to obey the Law "with faith" is to misapprehend the main message. Your last sentence quoted above is an argument from silence, and is therefore invalid.



While they were in captivity, they were actively prevented from complete obedience, but they weren't following it completely anyway, which is why they were in captivity in the first place. While I agree that the inability to comply with one part does not absolve them of the rest, it remains that the Law is a unit, and that breaking one 'part' is breaking the whole. We in Christ do not have a relationship with God which is based on Law, as Israel did. Ours is based solely on Christ, in the context of, but not on the basis of, Israel's history and the Law.
Hello Dino246,

Thanks for writing back!

Looks like we have quite a few issues on the table now...about 9 on my count.

Let's get into it!

1. You wrote: "The discussion in Galatians is not about faithless obedience to the Law (whatever that is; Paul didn't use the term or the concept) and faithful obedience."

My response: No. You are incorrect. Read Gal. 5:4-5. Paul, here, sets up a contrast between two groups:

Group 1: Those who seek to be justified by law (Gal. 5:4)
Group 2: Those who are righteous by faith (Gal. 5:5)

Now, which group has faith? Group 2!
Which group must (by contrast) NOT have faith? Group 1!

Therefore, Group 1 refers to people who seek justification by law (without faith).

The "without faith" insertion is not an instance of eisegesis (as you wrongly claim).

Rather, it is inferred from the contrast which Paul, himself, set up in the text.

Thus, Paul's critique of the Galatians is a critique in which he rejects FAITHLESS Torah-obedience.

BUT, is all Torah-obedience faithless?

Of course not!

Where does Torah require that we NOT have faith in the Messiah? NOWHERE!

To the contrary, Torah REQUIRES that we embrace the Messiah (Dt. 18).

So, Paul critiques faithless Torah-obedience, because proper Torah-obedience is FAITHFUL Torah-obedience.

Therefore, Paul's critique of the Galatians is NOT evidence against the claim that we should grow in FAITHFUL Torah-obedience.

Moreover, my position is confirmed (and yours is disconfirmed) by the evidence in (2) below.


2. You are evidently unfamiliar with Paul's writings which confirm that he expected believers to grow in faithful obedience to Torah. Here are a few of the many lines of evidence:

A.

i. Paul taught we should not sin (Rom. 6:15).
ii. Paul taught that sin is Torah-obedience (Rom. 3:20; 7:7).
iii. Paul taught that we should not disobey Torah (from i and ii).
iv. Paul taught that we should obey Torah (from iii).
v. Torah-obedience is either faithful or faithless. (logically necessary)
vi. Paul opposed faithless Torah-obedience (Gal. 5:4-5).
vii. Paul advocated faithful Torah-obedience (from iv, v, and vi)

B. Paul quotes the Torah-obedient Dt. 30:14 passage in Rom. 10:8, thereby confirming that faithful Torah-obedience IS the word of faith which Paul preached.

C. Paul said we live by faith (Gr. "pistis", Gal. 3:11), equating "pistis" with faithfulness (Heb. "emunah", Hab. 2:4, which he was quoting.) AND, what is this way of "emunah" by which we should live? TORAH! (see "emunah" in Ps. 119:30,86,138). Thus Paul is an advocate of faithful Torah-obedience.

D. Paul says we should admonish one another with Psalms (Col. 3:16), thereby confirming that we should be admonished to obey Torah just as the Psalms confirm that we should obey. But since Paul opposed faithless Torah-obedience (Gal. 5:4-5), Paul must be advocating FAITHFUL Torah-obedience.

E. Paul said we are not excluded from Israel or the covenants (Eph. 2:12). Thus we are included as fellow participants in the covenants (Mosaic, Abrahamic, New). It follows we should obey (not oppose!) the Torah of the covenants in which we participate. But since Paul opposed faithless Torah-obedience (Gal. 5:4-5), Paul must be advocating FAITHFUL Torah-obedience.

F. Paul said that ALL Scripture (including, of course, TORAH!) should correct and train our behavior (2 Ti. 3:16).

I could list much more...but let's start with that.

Do you now see that Paul taught Torah-obedience, but opposed faithless Torah-obedience, so he therefore taught FAITHFUL (not faithless) Torah-obedience?

Unless you directly address all these objections to your position, your position remains undefended.


3. You wrote: "If Paul meant faith-filled obedience to Law versus faithless obedience, he would have said so."

My response: Why should I accept your unjustified claim?

Peter warned us that Paul's writings are DIFFICULT to understand (2 Pe. 3:16), so we should not be surprised if Paul refrains from always explicitly spelling things out in a simple way (as you have wrongly presupposed).

So, pending justification of your unsupported claim regarding what Paul would have allegedly written, your claim here remains unsubstantiated.

Come to think of it, your claim regarding what Paul "would have said" is, itself, an argument from silence. I thought you thought arguments from silence were bad?

Please stop using unsubstantiated assumptions in an effort to justify your position.


4. You wrote: "Again, you're reading 'faithless' into the text. Because you are doing this, the rest of your argument is groundless."

My response: Again, unless you address the Pauline evidence I've brought forth (which confirms my position, and which disconfirms yours), then your claim of eisegesis remains unsupported.


5. You wrote: "Interesting idea, which might have some validity if Paul had not already made it clear in 3:3 and 3:5 that sanctification is by faith, not by Law."

My response: Wait a minute! I thought eisegesis was bad? :) Where does Gal. 3:3 (or 3:5) say that Paul was talking about sanctification? Remember? If Paul was talking about sanctification in 3:3 or 3:5, then "he would have said so", right?

Hmmm....I'm picking up on an inconsistent hermeneutics here...

Moreover, not all sanctification is by faith. Remember? Sanctification is also something we PURSUE (Heb. 12:14).

So, we're not surprised to see Jesus pray (Jn. 17:17) that we be sanctified by the word of God (i.e., Torah). Yes...as we obey Torah, we are sanctified.

And, we're not surprised to see Peter tell us that sanctification (holiness) is something WE do (1 Pe. 3:15).

And, we're not surprised to see that we should work to present ourselves as slaves of righteousness unto sanctification (Rom. 6:19)....and oh by the way, righteousness is also something we must DO (Gr. "poieo", 1 Jn. 2:29) as evidence of having been born of Him. So, "righteousness unto sanctification" is not an exclusively faith-based work-less experience.

In fact, Peter explicitly applies Lev. 11 to us (1 Pe. 1:16) as a means by which we may exemplify holiness through our ACTIONS of obedience to the Torah which Peter quoted and applied to even you!

Again, we're finding my position confirmed, and yours disconfirmed.


6. You wrote: "His point was that obedience to the Law benefited them nothing!"

My response: No. If Torah-obedience has no benefit, then we should not bother obeying Torah, which means we should not bother abstaining from sin (sin=Torah-disobedience, Rom. 3:20; 7:7). But Paul told us to NOT sin! (Rom. 6:15). Again, we've disconfirmed your claim here.

That's another reason why my position is better than yours.


7. You wrote: "To reframe it and claim that Paul was trying to tell them to obey the Law "with faith" is to misapprehend the main message."

My response: Your claim here is now seen to be ignorant of considerations I've brought forth earlier in this post.


8. You wrote: "We in Christ do not have a relationship with God which is based on Law, as Israel did."

My response: No! Righteousness has always been by faith...even since the time of Abraham. But, we who are righteous by faith also properly obey the Torah available to us (just like Abraham, Ge. 26:5).

AND, why assume you are excluded from Israel? Have you not read Eph. 2:12, which explicitly states that even believing Gentiles are NOT excluded?

AND, do you not participate in the New Covenant? Surely you do!

AND, is the New Covenant with only Israel? (answer: yes! Jer. 31:33)

Therefore, you MUST be an Israelite! Otherwise you are NOT a New Covenant participant.

AND, Torah passes directly into the New Covenant (Jer. 31:33), so let's stop pretending that it is terminated or somehow no longer applicable.

Furthermore, you just confessed that you are in Christ...but Christ is an Israelite! Therefore, you are IN an Israelite...I'd say that makes you rather Israelitish! :) (or you could say "grafted in")


9. You wrote: "Your last sentence quoted above is an argument from silence, and is therefore invalid."

My response: I see you do not appreciate the force of the logic of my position.

Let's be explicit:

1. Torah-obedience is either FAITHFUL or FAITHLESS (neccesary truth)
2. Paul opposed faithless Torah-obedience (Gal. 5:4-5).
3. Premise (2) is not evidence that Paul opposed FAITHFUL Torah-obedience.

I think you should see the logic now.

If A and B are diametrically opposed, then my opposition to A does not entail my opposition to B.

Therefore, Paul's opposition to faithless Torah-obedience is NOT evidence that Paul opposes faithful Torah-obedience.

So, justify your "argument from silence" accusation, or else retract it.



CONCLUSION: All right...there's 9 issues to kick off our chat...

Look forward to hearing from you...

blessings...
BibleGuy
 
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
' So, proper functioning of the seat of Moses must not contradict Mosaic prophecy, and (thus) it must not contradict the Messiah about whom Moses has prophesied.'

well... then the scribes of Jesus day weren't sitting in the seat of Moses.




'My response: Passed on by Paul, Silvanus and Timothy (the authors of 2 Th.).'

so, God's word... what are the man-made judgments you talked about in post 459?


it sounds like the non-fire starter, based on their understanding of God's word, could say that the fire-starter is breaking the Sabbath.

am I understanding?

Hi Dan,

You wrote: "well... then the scribes of Jesus day weren't sitting in the seat of Moses."

My response: No. To the extent that those (who sit in the seat of Moses) issue judgments which are consistent with proper Torah understanding and application, then even Jesus says we must obey those judgments (even when those sitting in the seat of Moses might be privately corrupt or hypocritical or....whatever, per Mt. 23:2-3).

However, to the extent that those (who sit in the seat of Moses) issue forth anti-Christ judgments...well...of course those judgments (per Torah itself) should be opposed.

And, since Rambam evidently opposed truths entailed by NT Scripture, it follows that we need not be concerned that RAMBAM's judgments (in, say, the Mishneh Torah) constitute a valid functioning of the seat of Moses.

You wrote: "what are the man-made judgments you talked about in post 459?"

Examples include Dt. 17:8-13 and Eze. 44:23.

You wrote: "it sounds like the non-fire starter, based on their understanding of God's word, could say that the fire-starter is breaking the Sabbath.

am I understanding?"

My response: Maybe...but again...Torah has hierarchical structure where Torah instruction conflicts sometimes require resolution by appeal to the overriding instruction of greater weight.

But yes, it's POSSIBLE that non-fire starters could properly identify fire-starters who intentionally profane Sabbath.

And, those who refuse to celebrate Pesach (Paul commanded Pesach in 1 Cor. 5:8) could be viewed as wrongly opposing the Torah-inspired tradition Paul passed on to the Corinthians regarding Pesach.

It's not always easy to throw out blanket statements though...

We're presently functioning (in the religious establishment) with a HUGE measure of ignorance...and Torah also makes provision for unintentional sin.

So, we need to be patient and gracious with those diligently seeking to engage us...

But then step up the measure of blunt opposition in case we sniff out the I-Refuse-To-Learn spirit which disturbingly lurks within the hearts of more religionists than you might think.

BibleGuy
 
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
the point ,with free will, then was it a mistake, or murder . by human court. etc.


may be, you missed, these points of law. the jewish law was also the law of the land.
yet when will the liar be questioned for etc

And Stephen, full of grace and power, was doing great wonders and signs among the people.9 Then some of those who belonged to the synagogue of the Freedmen (as it was called), and of the Cyrenians, and of the Alexandrians, and of those from Cilicia and Asia, rose up and disputed with Stephen.10 But they could not withstand the wisdom and the Spirit with which he was speaking.11 Then they secretly instigated men who said, "We have heard him speak blasphemous words against Moses and God."12 And they stirred up the people and the elders and the scribes, and they came upon him and seized him and brought him before the council,13 and they set up false witnesses who said, "This man never ceases to speak words against this holy place and the law,14 for we have heard him say that this Jesus of Nazareth will destroy this place and will change the customs that Moses delivered to us."15 And gazing at him, all who sat in the council saw that his face was like the face of an angel. acts 6


The Stoning of Stephen
54 Now when they heard these things they were enraged, and they ground their teeth at him.55 But he, full of the Holy Spirit, gazed into heaven and saw the glory of God, and Jesus standing at the right hand of God.56 And he said, "Behold, I see the heavens opened, and the Son of Man standing at the right hand of God."57 But they cried out with a loud voice and stopped their ears and rushed together at him.58 Then they cast him out of the city and stoned him. And the witnesses laid down their garments at the feet of a young man named Saul.59 And as they were stoning Stephen, he called out, "Lord Jesus, receive my spirit."60 And falling to his knees he cried out with a loud voice, "Lord, do not hold this sin against them." And when he had said this, he fell asleep.acts 7

when jesus said

7 And as they continued to ask him, he stood up and said to them, "Let him who is without sin among you be the first to throw a stone at her.John 8:

if the the law, has loop holes in it, what value has it, to you.(the jewish law)

21 I do not nullify the grace of God, for if righteousness were through the law, then Christ died for no purpose Galatians 2

2 For the law of the Spirit of life has set you free in Christ Jesus from the law of sin and death.Romans 8

etc etc etc
Hi there royalscot!

John 8 is a textual variant...so I'm not so sure Jesus even said that.

And besides, Mt. 5:19 clearly shows that Torah-obedience and Torah-teaching determines our position in the coming kingdom. So, that's CLEARLY of significant value!

best...
BibleGuy
 
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
'Not sure...but Moses may have spoken Dt. 1 through Dt. 28...maybe even all the way through Dt. 33....all in one day.'

"For this commandment which I command you today is not too hard for you or too distant."

so we really don't know what is "not too hard"... sounds like...

Moses is just referring to Torah in general...

So Moses is saying it's not too hard to obey Torah (Dt. 30:11).

I see no reason to favor an alternative interpretation.

BibleGuy
 
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
'SHOULD the Jews have "made the best of their situation" by keeping the observable Torah portions while in captivity?'

yes, at the same time realizing that they are guilty of breaking all points of the law.

are christians today guilty?




'If YES, then we can not claim that our present diaspora is an excuse to neglect observable Torah portions.'

all of torah is observable

For the whole law is fulfilled in one word, in this: “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.”


I'd say that the "guilty of breaking all Torah" concept (Jas. 2:10) refers to those who are walking in SIN (Jas. 2:9).

BUT, Christians now (1 Jn. 3:9) and faithful Israelites before Christ came (like unto Lk. 1:6) would not be walking in sin. So, the "guilty of breaking all Torah" would not apply to them.

BibleGuy
 
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
right! so the commandment that Moses talks about "this day"... we don't know which one or which part of Torah... sounds like
Again....it's just a general reference to the Torah of Moses.

This, of course, includes Ex. 12-13 and Ex. 20 to Dt. 34 (if you need specifics regarding the location of the bulk of Torah instructions).

BibleGuy
 
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
Yo BibleGuy!

I think you accidentially mixed up the "you wrote" part at the beginning.




in your view, is OT salvation the same as NT salvation?

Ooops!

Sorry.

Well, I was not personally "saved" from Egypt, as the ancient Israelites were.

But, salvation includes eternal life...and all saints (OT and NT) have eternal life.

We all have some unique experiences of salvation in our own lives.

BibleGuy
 
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
I don't believe you answered this question.

"are you able to see that difference?"




Paul not teaching them to forsake the law is not the same as teaching them to keep the law.








I didn't tell you not to go to the store.

is not the same as

I told you to go to the store.


can you see the difference between them?

Hi!

Your idea is inconsistent with the hebraic conception of "do not forsake".

The hebraic conception of "do not forsake" entails the concept of "therefore keep doing it".

Ps. 119:87 says "I did not forsake your precepts."

Now, do you seriously think this means that it's reasonable to suppose that the writer of Ps. 119:87 also did not keep OBEYING the precepts?

Of course not!

BibleGuy
 
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
You wrote: 'James compares what Paul does (walk keeping the law, but not to be saved)
with what the gentiles do, which is follow the four directives.'

My response: What Scripture are you using to support this quote?
 

Dan_473

Senior Member
Mar 11, 2014
9,054
1,051
113
Hi Dan,

You wrote: "well... then the scribes of Jesus day weren't sitting in the seat of Moses."

My response: No. To the extent that those (who sit in the seat of Moses) issue judgments which are consistent with proper Torah understanding and application, then even Jesus says we must obey those judgments (even when those sitting in the seat of Moses might be privately corrupt or hypocritical or....whatever, per Mt. 23:2-3).

However, to the extent that those (who sit in the seat of Moses) issue forth anti-Christ judgments...well...of course those judgments (per Torah itself) should be opposed.

And, since Rambam evidently opposed truths entailed by NT Scripture, it follows that we need not be concerned that RAMBAM's judgments (in, say, the Mishneh Torah) constitute a valid functioning of the seat of Moses.

You wrote: "what are the man-made judgments you talked about in post 459?"

Examples include Dt. 17:8-13 and Eze. 44:23.

You wrote: "it sounds like the non-fire starter, based on their understanding of God's word, could say that the fire-starter is breaking the Sabbath.

am I understanding?"

My response: Maybe...but again...Torah has hierarchical structure where Torah instruction conflicts sometimes require resolution by appeal to the overriding instruction of greater weight.

But yes, it's POSSIBLE that non-fire starters could properly identify fire-starters who intentionally profane Sabbath.

And, those who refuse to celebrate Pesach (Paul commanded Pesach in 1 Cor. 5:8) could be viewed as wrongly opposing the Torah-inspired tradition Paul passed on to the Corinthians regarding Pesach.

It's not always easy to throw out blanket statements though...

We're presently functioning (in the religious establishment) with a HUGE measure of ignorance...and Torah also makes provision for unintentional sin.

So, we need to be patient and gracious with those diligently seeking to engage us...

But then step up the measure of blunt opposition in case we sniff out the I-Refuse-To-Learn spirit which disturbingly lurks within the hearts of more religionists than you might think.

BibleGuy

'proper Torah understanding and application'

well... this takes us back to Who interprets Torah?






'You wrote: "what are the man-made judgments you talked about in post 459?"

Examples include Dt. 17:8-13 and Eze. 44:23.'

DEUTERONOMY 17:8 If there arises a matter too hard for you in judgment, between blood and blood, between plea and plea, and between stroke and stroke, being matters of controversy within your gates; then you shall arise, and go up to the place which Yahweh your God chooses.
DEUTERONOMY 17:9 You shall come to the priests who are Levites, and to the judge who shall be in those days. You shall inquire, and they shall give you the verdict.

who are the priests, Levites, and judge today?
 
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
well, I disagree

For the whole law is fulfilled in one word, in this: “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.”

this is the high-point of what Paul was leading up to Galatians... I can't think of how it could be over-used.




the 1st century church had loads of Jewish people in it, and many were "zealous for the law". but shortly after that, few Jews... just gentiles being led by the Spirit.
Rather....gentiles being OPPOSED to elements of truth the Spirit upholds.

For example, Gentile opposition to Jewish Torah-obedient truth appeared already in 3 Jn. 9.

And, Paul warned that a great apostasy was forthcoming (2 Th. 2:3).

And Paul took a vow to prove he OPPOSED the critics who falsely alleged that Paul taught apostasy against Moses (Ac. 21:21...)

So, Paul's warning of apostasy (2 Th. 2:3) even has the concept of a warning of forthcoming Torah-lessness built into it.

And sure enough, here we are, with a few billion Christians...yet VERY FEW of us know that Jesus and the apostles obeyed and taught Torah.

The anti-Christ spirit is an anti-Torah spirit. That's WHY we can say that the man of sin is the man of LAWLESSNESS (Torah-lessness, 2 Th. 2:3).

So, anti-Christ is anti-Torah. Our Christian establishment has anti-Torah elements within it....

Something is wrong here!

That's why we must seek to bring correction (2 Ti. 3:16) to those who wrongly oppose Torah among us.

It's not good enough to just say "love your neighbor...don't worry about Torah details". That's NOT consistent with Scripture.

Sure, "love your neighbor" is very important! But Torah details are ALSO important too (Mt. 5:19; Mt. 23:23).

best...
BibleGuy
 

Dan_473

Senior Member
Mar 11, 2014
9,054
1,051
113
Hi Dan,

You wrote: "well... then the scribes of Jesus day weren't sitting in the seat of Moses."

My response: No. To the extent that those (who sit in the seat of Moses) issue judgments which are consistent with proper Torah understanding and application, then even Jesus says we must obey those judgments (even when those sitting in the seat of Moses might be privately corrupt or hypocritical or....whatever, per Mt. 23:2-3).

However, to the extent that those (who sit in the seat of Moses) issue forth anti-Christ judgments...well...of course those judgments (per Torah itself) should be opposed.

And, since Rambam evidently opposed truths entailed by NT Scripture, it follows that we need not be concerned that RAMBAM's judgments (in, say, the Mishneh Torah) constitute a valid functioning of the seat of Moses.

You wrote: "what are the man-made judgments you talked about in post 459?"

Examples include Dt. 17:8-13 and Eze. 44:23.

You wrote: "it sounds like the non-fire starter, based on their understanding of God's word, could say that the fire-starter is breaking the Sabbath.

am I understanding?"

My response: Maybe...but again...Torah has hierarchical structure where Torah instruction conflicts sometimes require resolution by appeal to the overriding instruction of greater weight.

But yes, it's POSSIBLE that non-fire starters could properly identify fire-starters who intentionally profane Sabbath.

And, those who refuse to celebrate Pesach (Paul commanded Pesach in 1 Cor. 5:8) could be viewed as wrongly opposing the Torah-inspired tradition Paul passed on to the Corinthians regarding Pesach.

It's not always easy to throw out blanket statements though...

We're presently functioning (in the religious establishment) with a HUGE measure of ignorance...and Torah also makes provision for unintentional sin.

So, we need to be patient and gracious with those diligently seeking to engage us...

But then step up the measure of blunt opposition in case we sniff out the I-Refuse-To-Learn spirit which disturbingly lurks within the hearts of more religionists than you might think.

BibleGuy

'Maybe'

if there's a Maybe involved, then why would you judge another person's Torah keeping?





'We're presently functioning (in the religious establishment) with a HUGE measure of ignorance...'

I think the antidote would be to be led by the Spirit.

GALATIANS 5:14 For the whole law is fulfilled in one word, in this: “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.”

I don't perceive significant ignorance about this in the Christian world.
 

Dan_473

Senior Member
Mar 11, 2014
9,054
1,051
113
Moses is just referring to Torah in general...

So Moses is saying it's not too hard to obey Torah (Dt. 30:11).

I see no reason to favor an alternative interpretation.

BibleGuy
Torah in general, but not all parts at all times?




all parts of Torah can be completed today

GALATIANS 5:14 For the whole law is completed in one word, in this: “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.”
 

Dan_473

Senior Member
Mar 11, 2014
9,054
1,051
113
I'd say that the "guilty of breaking all Torah" concept (Jas. 2:10) refers to those who are walking in SIN (Jas. 2:9).

BUT, Christians now (1 Jn. 3:9) and faithful Israelites before Christ came (like unto Lk. 1:6) would not be walking in sin. So, the "guilty of breaking all Torah" would not apply to them.

BibleGuy
I think that when James says "anyone" he means, well... anyone.

sounds like you're willing to deal with concepts when talking about torah-keeping, then... I think the concepts of Torah are what it's all about...
 

Dan_473

Senior Member
Mar 11, 2014
9,054
1,051
113
Again....it's just a general reference to the Torah of Moses.

This, of course, includes Ex. 12-13 and Ex. 20 to Dt. 34 (if you need specifics regarding the location of the bulk of Torah instructions).

BibleGuy
I think the 'Torah in general' concept is great! that's what the Jews in Babylon were doing... what christians today are doing...
 

Dan_473

Senior Member
Mar 11, 2014
9,054
1,051
113
Ooops!

Sorry.

Well, I was not personally "saved" from Egypt, as the ancient Israelites were.

But, salvation includes eternal life...and all saints (OT and NT) have eternal life.

We all have some unique experiences of salvation in our own lives.

BibleGuy
every person has their own kind of salvation?
 

Dan_473

Senior Member
Mar 11, 2014
9,054
1,051
113
Hi!

Your idea is inconsistent with the hebraic conception of "do not forsake".

The hebraic conception of "do not forsake" entails the concept of "therefore keep doing it".

Ps. 119:87 says "I did not forsake your precepts."

Now, do you seriously think this means that it's reasonable to suppose that the writer of Ps. 119:87 also did not keep OBEYING the precepts?

Of course not!

BibleGuy
(I want to say this as gently as possible)
well, I'm sensing the answer to "can you see the difference between them?" is no
 

Dan_473

Senior Member
Mar 11, 2014
9,054
1,051
113