No. What you are doing is completely eliminating the thing that VERSE 2 is speaking about: Paul telling about the FALSE CLAIM "[purporting] THAT the day of the Lord IS PRESENT / IS ALREADY HERE [i.e. that the TRIB HAS ARRIVED and we're IN IT and EXPERIENCING IT--PERFECT INDICATIVE]"
But the TRIB was in fact NOT PRESENT. And Paul goes on to explain WHY (in v.3),
But the TRIB was in fact NOT PRESENT. And Paul goes on to explain WHY (in v.3),
I think that is some confusion here. So allow me to present what I am saying:
There are two closely linked, yet different events mentioned in 2 Thess.2:1-3
1). The coming of the Lord and our being gathered to Him (rapture)
2). The Day of the Lord - the time of God's wrath which follows the gathering
There were false teachers there who were proclaiming that "The Day of the Lord" had come, not the appearing of our Lord and our being gathered to Him. The occurrence of apostasy and the revealing of the man of lawlessness is the proof that Paul gave them of how to know that 'The Day of the Lord' had come.
Since there were those who were teaching that the Day of the Lord had come, the Thessalonians were concerned and wrote Paul as to why they were not gathered to meet the Lord in the air, which is what takes place prior to the Day of the Lord.
I am not wrong in these things, because I have studied the in's and out's of this issue for over 45 years.
And I humbly ask you to please stop with all of the grammar, definitions and indicatives and such and just write straight to the point because I study all of that stuff and it just makes it difficult to follow the post. Thank you!
You are not putting that sentence together properly (according to what is written in the text), but rather taking the IDEAS of this text and smooshing them together [eliminating v.2's Subject], thus coming up with an inaccurate "sentence" (and not according to what it is we are ACTUALLY pointing out about what verse 3 is speaking about, esp v.3a [which is v.2's Subject!! The TRIB!!]).
The bottom line is that, "The coming of the Lord and our being gathered to Him" takes place first, which is followed by "The Day of the Lord" in verse 2 &3 which is the time period of God's wrath. The proof of the Day of the Lord, is the occurrence of the apostasy and the revealing of the man of lawlessness.
And as I told CV5, the reason that I was moved to understand what Paul was saying to the Thessalonians, is because expositors kept trying to use the word "apostasy" to mean to 'depart' up into the air to meet Jesus, which is completely false. Because the word is used in Acts 21:21 to mean to "forsake" the Law of Moses. The other translated words used in the definition of the word are 'defection, revolt, departure, properly, departure (implying desertion); apostasy – literally, "a leaving, from a previous standing (of faith)"
Now some try to use the translated word 'departure' but use it to infer departing upward into the air to meet the Lord, which cannot be done. If the word 'departure' is used, then it must retain the original meaning of 'apostasia" and its translated words listed above. To be clear, you can't make the word 'apostasia translated as departure, to mean to fly up into the air to meet Jesus.