In context: Romans 4:4-5

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Jan 19, 2013
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Elin,

I cited the text that stated very clearly that Christ overlooked the sin of man.
He atoned for the sin of the world.
NO place does it ever say He atoned for the sins of ONLY believers. I John 2:2, John 1:29
He came to die as a ransom for the sins of many, not for the sins of all (Mt 20:28).

Sins of the world are the sins of Gentiles as well as Jews, not just for Jews, as in the OT sacrificial system.
 
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Jan 19, 2013
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Elin,

I cited two instances where Christ overlooked the sin of man and redeemed mankind
Neiiher texts state that Christ over looked the sin of man.

II Cor 5:19 very clearly states that God overlooked the sin of man, did not impute their trespasses against them.
The very same thing is stated in Rom 3:23-25.
Yes, God overlooked their sin because Christ reconciled to God those who believe in the Son,
by his atoning sacrifice for their sin, taking it away on the cross (Heb 10:4).

Their sin is gone.

Their sin being removed by faith in Jesus Christ, God declares them "not guilty" of sin and rightwise/in right standing with him;
i.e., justified, righteous (Ro 5:17; 1:17), saved from his wrath at the final judgment (Ro 5:9; 1Th 5:9).
 
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E

ELECT

Guest
that does not answer the statement either. What text/context in scripture are you using that says God "worked within the redeemed"?
[h=1]Philippians 2:13King James Version (KJV)[/h]13 For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure.
 
Jan 19, 2013
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Elin

You or your protestant source is translating the Latin meaning back into the Greek. This definition was never held by anyone except Anselm and then both Luther and Calvin adopted the theory into their own interpretation of scripture.
You could use a good Greek dictionary.

Even if you did hold to the definition it would be only temporary because man sins repeatedly and would need repentance/or confession to again warrant a "Not guilty" status.
Those in Christ are not guilty of condemnation at the final judgment.

Their condemnation was forever forgiven through grace by faith, and their sin is forgiven in confessing it (1Jn 1:8-10).

So much faulty human logic, and so little Biblical thinking.
 
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Cassian

Senior Member
Oct 12, 2013
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He came to die as a ransom for the sins of many, not for the sins of all (Mt 20:28).

Sins of the world are the sins of Gentiles as well as Jews, not just for Jews, as in the OT sacrificial system.
Scripture states that He died for sinners. He redeemed sinners, the ungodly, Rom 5:6-10. it also states He was the propitiation for the sins of the world, I John 2:2.
More importantly, He died only once, He arose only once. He did this as the Incarnated God/Man. He performed only one sacrifice so it would be impossible to not have died for all sins atoned for the sins of the world.

It never states He died for particular sins, or particular peoples sins, of kinds of sin. He atoned for sin.
 

Cassian

Senior Member
Oct 12, 2013
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Neiiher texts state that Christ over looked the sin of man.


Yes, God overlooked their sin because Christ reconciled to God those who believe in the Son,
by his atoning sacrifice for their sin, taking it away on the cross (Heb 10:4).

Their sin is gone.

Their sin being removed by faith in Jesus Christ, God declares them "not guilty" of sin and rightwise/in right standing with him;
i.e., justified, righteous (Ro 5:17; 1:17), saved from his wrath at the final judgment (Ro 5:9; 1Th 5:9).
There is no text that states that Christ ONLY reconciled possible future believers only. II Cor 5:18-19, Rom 3:23-25 as well as Col 1:20 Christ is reconciling the world, all things to God. There are no exceptions in the work of Christ. Faith does not atone for sin. Faith does not even forgive sins. Repentance and confession of sin remits sins which is possible because Christ atoned for sin. Christ becomes the High Priest over His own sacrifice for sin.

On the Cross, more accurately, by His death, He atoned for sin. He did NOT forgive sins on the Cross. The ONLY sins that are ever forgiven are those repented of or confessed. There is a huge difference between the meaning of atonement and the forgiveness of sin.

Your adoption of the Anselmian theory turns scripture on its head. There is no moment that a believer has been permanently declared not guilty from sin, especially by initial faith. There is nothing in scripture that supports such a notion except through the suppositions of the theory.
 
Jan 19, 2013
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You missed it again. Your definition as you state it was never understood by the Greeks in the early Church.
The Greeks did not write the NT.

The NT means what the Greek means, as written by the apostles, et al.

You could use a good Greek dictionary.

You also failed to show that it means, eternal life, born again, or salvation.
In the Greek, "justification" is an acquittal of guilt.

We are "justified," acquitted of guilt, declared "not guilty" by God, through grace by faith in Jesus Christ.

We are saved from the wrath of God (Ro 5:9, 1Th 5:9) by faith (Eph 2:8-9).

Salvation is the forgiveness of sin (Lk 1:77).

Being acquitted of guilt by God because of faith, we are given righteousness from God (Ro 5:17, 1:17)
just as Abraham was because of his faith (Ge 15:6).

Salvation is the new birth into eternal life.

The meaning of these things is clear in the NT.
 

Cassian

Senior Member
Oct 12, 2013
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Philippians 2:13King James Version (KJV)

13 For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure.
but the assertion made is that God is doing the work of believing for the believers. God works In you for you to do His will. God is not the one doing His will through you.

If God is actually doing the work that He requires of you, then God becomes the responsible agent and in the judgment God is actually judging Himself rather than you.
 
Jan 19, 2013
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These texts do not even come close to saying that God does the work of salvation of man inside. God's work is to influence you to believe and work with you and will complete it as long as that person remains faithful. God is not working unilaterally and giving anyone eternal life without that person's desire, effort and will to be saved. Same is true of what you called external. God does not, in fact cannot save you as an individual on His own. The ONLY way you will be saved is to work with Him and work out your salvation with fear and trembling. Man, more correct, it is man's desire and will that will determine if he attains eternal life.
If it was up to God to save unilaterally, He would give everyone eternal life, for that is what He desires.
Salvation is by faith (Eph 2:8-9), and faith is a gift from God (Php 1:29; 2Pe 1:1; Ac 18:37; Ro 12:3),
as is repentance (2Ti 2:25; Ac 11:18; 5:31)
and righteousness (Ro 5:17).

That is the work of salvation which God does inside.

And God himself having worked salvation in you, then
keeps you in that salvation (Php 1:6, 2:13; Ro 8:38; Heb 6:16-20, 10:14; 1Pe 1:3-5)
through the obedience of faith.
 
Jan 19, 2013
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Scripture states that He died for sinners. He redeemed sinners, the ungodly, Rom 5:6-10. it also states He was the propitiation for the sins of the world, I John 2:2.
More importantly, He died only once, He arose only once. He did this as the Incarnated God/Man. He performed only one sacrifice so
it would be impossible to not have died for all sins atoned for the sins of the world.

It never states He died for particular sins
, or particular peoples sins, of kinds of sin. He atoned for sin.
Previously addressed, as follows:

He came to die as a ransom for the sins of many, not for the sins of all (Mt 20:28).

Sins "of the world" are the sins of Gentiles as well as Jews, not just for Jews, as in the OT sacrificial system.
 
Jan 19, 2013
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There is no text that states that Christ ONLY reconciled possible future believers only. II Cor 5:18-19, Rom 3:23-25 as well as Col 1:20 Christ is reconciling the world, all things to God. There are no exceptions in the work of Christ. Faith does not atone for sin. Faith does not even forgive sins. Repentance and confession of sin remits sins which is possible because Christ atoned for sin. Christ becomes the High Priest over His own sacrifice for sin.

On the Cross, more accurately, by His death, He atoned for sin. He did NOT forgive sins on the Cross. The ONLY sins that are ever forgiven are those repented of or confessed. There is a huge difference between the meaning of atonement and the forgiveness of sin.

Your adoption of the Anselmian theory turns scripture on its head. There is no moment that a believer has been permanently declared not guilty from sin, especially by initial faith. There is nothing in scripture that supports such a notion except through the suppositions of the theory.
Previously addressed in post #610 immediately above.
 

Cassian

Senior Member
Oct 12, 2013
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You could use a good Greek dictionary.


Those in Christ are not guilty of condemnation at the final judgment.

Their condemnation was forever forgiven through grace by faith, and their sin is forgiven in confessing it (1Jn 1:8-10).

So much faulty human logic, and so little Biblical thinking.
Your Greek dictionaries are based on the Latin translation thus they take a Latin word and give it a Greek meaning rather than stay with the Latin meaning which is based on the Medieval concept of civil justice.

I hold to the Greek scholars of the early Church where not a single Greek ever held your interpretation. The Church was exclusively Greek for 900 years with Latin recovery its use in Rome after the fall of Rome. Jerome made his translation in the 4th century and because Latin had no equivalent word for righteous he inserted the Latin word, justify/justification.

The Satisfaction theory that you are espousing has several unscriptural concepts. One is that God must operate from some external source of justice outside of Himself. Secondly, it makes sins God's problem rather than man's. It also does not change man. It actually changes God.
It does have great psychological pull in that most people have an innate sense of guilt and if one establishes that God paid for this guilt a simple sermon, condemning man because of his guilt, then making the alter call that all one needs to do is accept Christ, you are declared NOT GUILTY and are finitely saved. One can go from being a sinner to perfection ins 60 seconds.
Yet there is nothing in scripture that even comes close to that claim.

One's salvation is all about being transformed, being healed, being made into Christs, not instant perfection whereby man is still the same sinner he was before the alter call and nothing has changed or possibly will ever change because part of the doctrine is that one is saved no matter what one does after that point.


Those in Christ are not guilty of condemnation at the final judgment.
agreed but that is not what we are discussing.

Their condemnation was forever forgiven through grace by faith, and their sin is forgiven in confessing it (1Jn 1:8-10).
As long as faith is active in the believer he will continue to confess his sins to remain IN Christ. Why would you even use I John 1:6-10 when your theory states that upon initial faith, "justification" a believer, as you stated above, is forever saved. What is the necessity of forgiveness throughout his walk with God. Are you hedging your bet on Justification?

So much faulty human logic, and so little Biblical thinking.
you seem to be living up to your statement.
 

Cassian

Senior Member
Oct 12, 2013
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Elin,

The Greeks did not write the NT.

The NT means what the Greek means, as written by the apostles, et al.

You could use a good Greek dictionary.
The Apostles wrote and taught in Greek. You are correct in that the NT means what the Greek means and has always meant since that time. You are holding to a man made theory of Anselm in the 11th century. All the reformers adopted the theory.
 

Cassian

Senior Member
Oct 12, 2013
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Salvation is by faith (Eph 2:8-9), and faith is a gift from God (Php 1:29; 2Pe 1:1; Ac 18:37; Ro 12:3),
as is repentance (2Ti 2:25; Ac 11:18; 5:31)
and righteousness (Ro 5:17).

That is the work of salvation which God does inside.

And God himself having worked salvation in you, then
keeps you in that salvation (Php 1:6, 2:13; Ro 8:38; Heb 6:16-20, 10:14; 1Pe 1:3-5)
through the obedience of faith.
Now you have changed your view. God is working in a believer through or because of His faith. Thus man is the operative agent, not God. God ONLY works with a believer as long as one is faithful. Your quote of I Pet 1:3-5 says it precisely.

Nothing happens without faith. When faith falters or a person rejects Christ, returns to his sinful ways, God no longer works in him. God does not operate in man unilaterally, only through faith. Then only as long as that believer continues to cooperate with God.

Speaks directly against your satisfaction theory as well.
 

Cassian

Senior Member
Oct 12, 2013
1,960
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Previously addressed, as follows:

He came to die as a ransom for the sins of many, not for the sins of all (Mt 20:28).

Sins "of the world" are the sins of Gentiles as well as Jews, not just for Jews, as in the OT sacrificial system.
Who else is left? Actually you are not stating it correctly. He atoned for sin. There is no personal connotation. It is collective sin of the world. All things were redeemed by His Blood, Col 1:20. This includes the physical world as well.
 
Jan 19, 2013
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Elin said:
Cassian said:
Scripture states that He died for sinners. He redeemed sinners, the ungodly, Rom 5:6-10. it also states He was the propitiation for the sins of the world, I John 2:2.
More importantly, He died only once, He arose only once. He did this as the Incarnated God/Man. He performed only one sacrifice so
it would be impossible to not have died for all sins atoned for the sins of the world.

It never states He died for particular sins
, or particular peoples sins, of kinds of sin. He atoned for sin.
Previously addressed, as follows:

He came to die as a ransom for the sins of many, not for the sins of all
(Mt 20:28).

Sins "of the world" are the sins of Gentiles as well as Jews, not just for Jews,
as in the OT sacrificial system.
Who else is left? Actually you are not stating it correctly.
Simply responding to your statement.

He atoned for sin.
Which does not necessarily mean for all sin, as he said that he came to die as a ransom for the sins of many (Mt 20:28), he did not say for the sins of all.

There is no personal connotation.
Is any sin not personal?

It is collective sin of the world.
That is your assumption. The text does not state that.

All things were redeemed by His Blood, Col 1:20. This includes the physical world as well.
No, all things were reconciled.

When Adam sinned, not only was harmony between God and man destroyed,
but creation was subjected to disorder as well (Ro 8:19-20).

Christ's atoning death not only restores harmony between God and those who believe in Christ,
but also will restore creation's disorder at the resurrection (Ro 8:21-23).
 
Jan 19, 2013
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Elin said:
He came to die as a ransom for the sins of many, not for the sins of all(Mt 20:28).

Sins of the world are the sins of Gentiles as well as Jews, not just for Jews, as in the OT sacrificial system.
Scripture states that He died for sinners.
Yes it does. . .and therefore he did.
 
Mar 12, 2014
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1Co 3:12-15 was previously addressed. . .below:

In 2Co 6:1, Paul is addressing the saved who are his fellow workers, and therefore
is not referring to unconditional saving grace given to them, which has already saved them.

He is referring to enabling grace given to the already saved for the Christian life.
If one's Christian works are wood, hay and stubble,
then they have received God's enabling grace in vain.

They themselves are saved by their unconditional saving grace,
but they will suffer loss of their reward in heaven (1Co 3:12-15)
if they receive in vain his enabling grace and build with wood, hay and stubble in their Christian life.
1 cor 3 has nothing to do with Eph 2:10 where God BEFORE ORDAINED Christians walk in good works.

Again, can "Joe" become a Christian and NEVER do any good works yet still be saved?
 
C

Calminian

Guest
Can "Joe" become a Christian and not do any good works as a Christian and yet still be saved anyway?
No. If Joe does not works, then it's proof he did not have faith. You've been told this dozens of times in this thread.