Is marking of Mark of the Beast is literal or just figurative?
- Thread starter just_truth
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Per scripture no man will be able to buy or sell without the mark of the beast. The mark would have to be visible in order to determine if it is permissible for an individual to make a transaction.
Rev 13:16-17
And he causeth all, both small and great, rich and poor, free and bond, to receive a mark in their right hand, or in their foreheads:
And that no man might buy or sell, save he that had the mark, or the name of the beast, or the number of his name.
Rev 13:16-17
And he causeth all, both small and great, rich and poor, free and bond, to receive a mark in their right hand, or in their foreheads:
And that no man might buy or sell, save he that had the mark, or the name of the beast, or the number of his name.