Is the entire Bible the infallible inerrant Word of God?

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miktre

Guest
#41
Snail does bring up a very good point. You must pay very close to the scriptures as to who is speaking. Just because someone says something in the bible doesn't mean it's from God or God agrees with it.
 
Jan 8, 2009
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#42
The problem is that you don't understand the answer. The Bible is inerrant in reporting the lie of the snake--just like the error reported accurately in Acts. So, whatsoever the scripture asserts as true and free from error is to be recieved as such. And whatever the scripture asserts not to be true is recieved as such. This is the difference between inerrancy and endorsement. Is that clear enough for you?
So you're saying the bible is inerrant in reporting an inerrancy. Even if you communicate a lie truthfully then it's still a lie no?

Still , the question was, is the bible inerrant? Obviously not in content, arguably in communication.

If we say that the bible interprets the bible, and interprets itself, where exactly does it say that whatever the authors wrote down is without error?

I still say an error reported without error is still an error.
 
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charisenexcelcis

Guest
#43
So you're saying the bible is inerrant in reporting an inerrancy. Even if you communicate a lie truthfully then it's still a lie no?

Still , the question was, is the bible inerrant? Obviously not in content, arguably in communication.

If we say that the bible interprets the bible, and interprets itself, where exactly does it say that whatever the authors wrote down is without error?

I still say an error reported without error is still an error.
So, if you where called as a witness into court in a case of false testimony, and you were asked to repeat for the court the testimony in question, and you did, repeated word-for-word the lie that the defender gave as testimony, could the defense attorney rise and say, "Objection, this testimony is an error." Of course not.
As for scripture, here is one a bit unusual: II Peter 3:16-17.
 
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#44
Scripture is useful yes, but no where does it dogmatically declare it all to be inerrant to the degree which most believe it to be. That's where faith comes in that we believe it to be true. But Christ did not place the importance on an inerrant scripture but upon the teaching job of the Holy Spirit (John 16:12-13). I can't recall Christ ever speaking about the inerrancy of scripture to prove a point, but to use the existing scripture under inspiration of the Holy Spirit to make a point.
 
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charisenexcelcis

Guest
#45
Scripture is useful yes, but no where does it dogmatically declare it all to be inerrant to the degree which most believe it to be. That's where faith comes in that we believe it to be true. But Christ did not place the importance on an inerrant scripture but upon the teaching job of the Holy Spirit (John 16:12-13). I can't recall Christ ever speaking about the inerrancy of scripture to prove a point, but to use the existing scripture under inspiration of the Holy Spirit to make a point.
You obviously didn't look up the scripture. (II Peter 3:16-17)
The scripture you are recalling is from II Timothy 3:16-17. The part of this scripture that you miss is All scripture is God-breathed. For scripture to be in error, God would have to be in error, since He is the true source.
Your view of inspiration, though crudely stated, is either devotional (based upon the heart felt belief of the authoritative reader) or neo-Orthodox. If you would like to be able to state your view more completely I would suggest perhaps Barth or Brunner.
However, from now on, when you quote scripture, you must first prove that it is inerrant. Each word must be tested and proven that it is neither hearsay nor Satan disguised as inspiration.
(Greatkay: How was that for sarcasm.)
 
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#46
And I suppose you think God-breathed means "God-written". Two entirely different concepts I'm afraid, ask any Muslim how their Koran came to be...
 
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charisenexcelcis

Guest
#47
And I suppose you think God-breathed means "God-written". Two entirely different concepts I'm afraid, ask any Muslim how their Koran came to be...
God-breathed is a correct translation of the Greek: pasa graphe theopneumatos kai ophelimos... As for Muslims, their view of the preservation of the Koran is much more strict than mine. Their view of inspiration is closer to dictation than mine. I believe that my view of inspiration is adequated stated in my previous post but so you won't have to wander back (I don't want to keep you from your other pressing matters): The Holy Spirit so guided and superintended the writers of the sacred text, making use of their own unique personalities, that they wrote all that He wanted them to write, without excess or error.
 
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#48
The problem is it can also be translated "every inspired scripture is useful", and as per the view of inerrancy this only applies to the originals not to the copies. The view that it is inerent in its entirety is false, as also explained on carm:
http://www.carm.org/apologetics/evidence-and-answers/inerrancy-and-inspiration-bible


In other words really the only thing you can claim to be inspired AND 100% inerrant are the originals, if you happen to have a copy of those on hand?

2 Tim 4:13 and Luke 1:3 are two examples of specifically human statements that warrant no attribution of being "God-breathed" or inspired, so you'd be wrong that it is inspired in its entirety.
 
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charisenexcelcis

Guest
#49
The problem is it can also be translated "every inspired scripture is useful", and as per the view of inerrancy this only applies to the originals not to the copies. The view that it is inerent in its entirety is false, as also explained on carm:
http://www.carm.org/apologetics/evidence-and-answers/inerrancy-and-inspiration-bible


In other words really the only thing you can claim to be inspired AND 100% inerrant are the originals, if you happen to have a copy of those on hand?
Not really. The presence of "kai" puts "God-breathed" and "useful" in parallel construction. "pasa grapho theopneustos kai ophelimos..." God-breathed and useful.
I am interested in the underlying theology of "carm". Is this where you got your training in interpretation?
 
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charisenexcelcis

Guest
#50
Also, for that interpretation, God-breathed (theopneustos) would have to be an adjective rather than a noun.
 
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#51
The founder has a Masters of Divinity from Westminster Theological Seminary as it says on their website, it's a useful website sometimes that's all I use it for, as for their background who knows?

Now onto my next point, did Paul Himself regard his own writings 2 Tim 4:13 to be inspired? If there were any passages that contained uninspired remarks, comments, or statements of fact it would have to be in Paul's letters. There are times when Paul says he is merely communicating his own opinion, rather than receiving a command from Christ. These are obviously not from God, as the author said so himself! In doing so, Paul himself in his humble nature, does not presume that everything he writes is "from God".
 
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#52
That's not to say Paul's own opinion (1 Cor 7:25 is one example) is merely human opinion as he was the chosen apostle of God, but it does rank his remarks to be less of the "inspired Word of God" than those words communicated directly through the prophet Elijah for example .
 
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charisenexcelcis

Guest
#53
The founder has a Masters of Divinity from Westminster Theological Seminary as it says on their website, it's a useful website sometimes that's all I use it for, as for their background who knows?

Now onto my next point, did Paul Himself regard his own writings 2 Tim 4:13 to be inspired? If there were any passages that contained uninspired remarks, comments, or statements of fact it would have to be in Paul's letters. There are times when Paul says he is merely communicating his own opinion, rather than receiving a command from Christ. These are obviously not from God, as the author said so himself! In doing so, Paul himself in his humble nature, does not presume that everything he writes is "from God".
Peter considered Paul's writings as inspired. Paul is very careful to qualify certain things as godly advice as opposed to absolute instruction. I interpret that distinction as being divine as well as human.
I am surprised that the site doesn't have a statement of faith. The Masters may or may not mean anything, but WTS is a fairly conservative reformed seminary. do you know the name of the founder?
 
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charisenexcelcis

Guest
#55
Here's where you can find info about him and others:
http://www.carm.org/matt-slick

I did read somewhere that the seminaries like Fuller, believe in infallaibility but not in inerrancy.
Yes, though not all. Westminster is going through that controversy right now and seems to have chosen to not make a decision. So, Matt Slick. I will definitely research this.
 
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Fern

Guest
#56
"Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection. But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence. For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression. Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety." 1 Timothy 2:11-15
I have always wondered about this. How does Paul understand that the woman was THE one who transgressed? Either Adam was deceived too, or he chose to disobey.
Also, I do not understand the statement of being saved in childbearing. I've heard that it can mean caring for children, whether giving birth to them, but what if that isn't a given woman's passion? Why would this have anything to do with salvation?

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John 15: You are my friends if you do what I command.... my command is this: love each other.
 
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Graybeard

Guest
#57
some scriptures are true statements BUT not statements of Truth.
 
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charisenexcelcis

Guest
#58
I have always wondered about this. How does Paul understand that the woman was THE one who transgressed? Either Adam was deceived too, or he chose to disobey.
Also, I do not understand the statement of being saved in childbearing. I've heard that it can mean caring for children, whether giving birth to them, but what if that isn't a given woman's passion? Why would this have anything to do with salvation?

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John 15: You are my friends if you do what I command.... my command is this: love each other.
First, this passage states that woman was decieved, the connotation is that Adam knowingly sinned without being decieved.
Regarding childbearing, I think this is a promise of divine favor through what was, at that time, the leading cause of death in young women.
 
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greatkraw

Guest
#59
First, this passage states that woman was decieved, the connotation is that Adam knowingly sinned without being decieved.
Regarding childbearing, I think this is a promise of divine favor through what was, at that time, the leading cause of death in young women.
Adam sinned with his eyes open

through childbearing the woman(women) passed on uncorrupted seed to Christ