Jesus is the law
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i'm tryna avoid disputatious mode, so i'll just ask what sources there are that 1 Cor was originally written in anything but Koine Greek, please?
also, kinda perplexed by that last line
also, kinda perplexed by that last line
So in conclusion, the term "Lord Jesus" clarifies that Jesus follows God. If scripture was to say "Jesus Lord" meaning (Jesus God instead of Jesus Messiah) then we could truly teach that Jesus over-rode His Father and taught something different via the New Covenant. This would be a backwards misconception.
"I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me." John 8:18
Jesus came from God, but God didn't come from Jesus. That's about as plain as I can state it. By the way, you're pretty nice in my book. Just wanted to say that.
"Jesus said unto them, If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me." John 8:42
"For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak." John 12:49
God Almighty doesn't take back anything He's ever spoken or will speak. He doesn't change, and doesn't need to, for His is total perfection.
The principle in James 4:11 seems to follow: Mt 22:37-40
37 Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind.
38 This is the first and great commandment.
39 And the second is like unto it, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
40 On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets.
KJV especially verse 39. This, in turn, follows: Lev 19:18
18 Thou shalt not avenge, nor bear any grudge against the children of thy people, but thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself: I am the Lord.
KJV
The intent, IMO, is: Since Ro 8:1-4
There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.
3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
KJV;
therefore, judging one's brother contradicts the 'Law of the Spirit of Life'. which states that there is now NO CONDEMNATION.
At least that's how I see it.
37 Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind.
38 This is the first and great commandment.
39 And the second is like unto it, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
40 On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets.
KJV especially verse 39. This, in turn, follows: Lev 19:18
18 Thou shalt not avenge, nor bear any grudge against the children of thy people, but thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself: I am the Lord.
KJV
The intent, IMO, is: Since Ro 8:1-4
There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.
3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
KJV;
therefore, judging one's brother contradicts the 'Law of the Spirit of Life'. which states that there is now NO CONDEMNATION.
At least that's how I see it.
P
linguistics aside, i guess, (including word placement, which differs from language to language)
i agree that the Lord Jesus () came in the flesh to do the will of His Father.
but that was just for the time He emptied Himself and took on the form of a servant for our sakes, right?
i mean, do you think the Second Person of the Godhead is still subservient to the First?
(i'm tired, so pay no attention if none of that made sense)
i agree that the Lord Jesus (
) came in the flesh to do the will of His Father.but that was just for the time He emptied Himself and took on the form of a servant for our sakes, right?
i mean, do you think the Second Person of the Godhead is still subservient to the First?
(i'm tired, so pay no attention if none of that made sense
)You're right. Sorry that I didn't make myself clear. It's a dialect of Aramaic, not a language, just like high German and low German. Another example would be the difference between southern and north American speech. I was just saying that this dialect was used during the time of Christ and the writings of the apostles, and seems to have been the norm for most people in the surrounding areas. Paul's letters were translated for people who were not acquainted with that language, as I understand. I don't differ with your input however. I was only referring to the New Testament scriptures in the AENT that I recently purchased. I find no discrepancies of any consequence with the KJV. God bless you. thanks
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