I could care less what the originals said, the originals were written for Greek speakers 2000 years ago.
And that is your mistake!
And, actually Micah was written in Hebrew/Aramaic not Greek, anyway...
There had to be a process of getting from those languages to English - you are happy to dismiss this process of copying and maintaining manuscripts, and translating them into other languages as just magic!
Magically, poof(!) the KJV appeared, apparently inspired and inerrant, out of nowhere, a vacuum, according to you, yet you have documented on several occasions, not less in the quoted post, your disdain and contempt for the process by which the KJV was created.
Your belief, that the KJV is inspired and inerrant, is a just fairy tale, completely contradicted by historic fact!
I would say that "Alice in Wonderland" has more claim on fact and reason!
You are completely unwilling to actually engage with any facts that run counter to your fantasy views on the KJV...
You actual argument with respect to the quoted passage in Micah amounts to this:
*The KJV is inspired and inerrant;
*Other translation differ with the KJV;
*The KJV is inspired and inerrant, therefore any differences must mean the the other translations are wrong....
Yet you cannot "prove" in any reasonable way the correctness of the KJV!
You saying that the KJV is inspired and inerrant is an act of faith, but it is faith in fairy tale........