Presidente, you are flailing about, disagreeing with me but more, disagreeing with any of the source authorities I quote; yet you do not attempt to in detail what a passage says.
You also have not answered my question as to what is more important to you, pleasing God or getting people to agree with the idea that homosexuality is okay and same-sex sexual activity is okay. Do you post on Muslim boards trying to persuade Muslims that gay is okay? How about Buddhists? Why does Christianity become the target of those seeking to promote libertine ideas in regard to this issue?
I'll quote one of your sentences to show how 'odd' your reasoning is.
You wrote:
"You also overlook the fact that Romans 1 is about 'men.' Paul does not specify that one individual became idolatrous, then burned with lust, then started doing same-sex acts."
You emphasize 'men' here and you've done it in the past when referencing some saying "boys" are involved. On that point, the passage is literally rendered by "males" with no definite age contrast. Yet, in the 3rd Greek for men in Rom. 1:27, there is a difference in the Greek, as stated in the BDAG -
"The Attic form ἄρρην appears in Ac 7:19 v.l.; Ro 1:27a v.l.; 1:27ab Tdf., S. [but the last reads ἄρσεσιν for the third occurrence]"
From Wikipedia: "Attic Greek is the Greek dialect of the ancient region of Attica, including the polis of Athens. Often called classical Greek,"
Your other argument in that sentence is that since it is 'men', it is plural and does not specify an individual person's behavior. You seem to think the idea is that a mass of men has done something but not individuals. That is really strange thinking! Masses of people are made up of individuals.
You wrote:
"You also overlook the fact that Romans 1 is about 'men.' Paul does not specify that one individual became idolatrous, then burned with lust, then started doing same-sex acts."
You emphasize 'men' here and you've done it in the past when referencing some saying "boys" are involved. On that point, the passage is literally rendered by "males" with no definite age contrast. Yet, in the 3rd Greek for men in Rom. 1:27, there is a difference in the Greek, as stated in the BDAG -
"The Attic form ἄρρην appears in Ac 7:19 v.l.; Ro 1:27a v.l.; 1:27ab Tdf., S. [but the last reads ἄρσεσιν for the third occurrence]"
From Wikipedia: "Attic Greek is the Greek dialect of the ancient region of Attica, including the polis of Athens. Often called classical Greek,"
Your other argument in that sentence is that since it is 'men', it is plural and does not specify an individual person's behavior. You seem to think the idea is that a mass of men has done something but not individuals. That is really strange thinking! Masses of people are made up of individuals.
Your reading is odd. Your insistence that it must be about a men who desired women turning to have sex with men against their own sexual orientation is bizarre and obviously false. You also cited a source that showed that the concept of sexual orientation was not around in the first century in the first place, so why read it back into Paul's letters.
While it is true that Rom. 1:27 does not specify a man with a boy; an adult male with a male youth; it is interesting that a variation is used for the 3rd Greek for "male" in the verse. Then, also, Paul in 1 Cor. 6:9 and 1 Tim. 1:10 speaks of sodomites, and a sodomite involves abuse, so would involve an aggressive type of male lording it over another male in a lower position of power, a boy, youth or slave. That does match the history of that day as multiple commentaries have pointed out.
I would agree with you that 'homosexual sex' involves abuse. It may be consensual, but men are abusing the very bodies God gave them. The KJV translate it as 'abusers of themselves with mankind.' I would not use 'abuse' nowadays to translate that if I were a Bible translator, since the term conjures up imagines of black eyes.
I agree with the commentators, translators and interpreters who take arsenokoitai to refer one member of the sex act, and in this context, for the malakos to refer to the other guy.
Whether you translate it as men or males, the word arsenos there is plural, and notice the connection with the word aresenokoitai in I Corinthians 6 and I Timothy 1.
The idea that homosexual sex is okay is against the overall teaching of scripture on the topic. Men having sex with men carried a death penalty in the Old Testament and Gentiles were driven out of the land for it. Paul says to prevent fornication, let every woman have her own husband and to let every man have his own wife. There is no provision for a man to have a husband. In the Eden story, there is man and woman not man and man. The husband is to love his wife as Christ loved the church-- not some scenario with two men.
Instead of trying to change the Bible to accommodate lusts, the solution is repentance and the grace of God working in ones life to overcome sin. The Bible says, that 'if ye live after the flesh, ye will die; but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live."