I see that you don't distinguish between the nation of Israel and individual Jews, maybe that is why you don't understand my argument.
What evidence do you have that the gospel and three epistles and the apocalypse were written to the nation of Israel.
The epistles and apocrypha were written to churches, not a nation.
I don’t understand your argument because it includes the false premise that John only wrote to the nation of Israel
No reason to accept that premise whatsoever