Loss of salvation???

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Mem

Mem

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Sep 23, 2014
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...Or should we look at the statement in question as an example in the use of a rhetorical device which illustrates that it is impossible for sharks to ever have any problems with swallowing meter long fish?
 
P

PaulThomson

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Oct 29, 2023
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Mem said:
How does the difference apply to us? I mean, how do we become sharks in order to swallow a meter long fish?
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We cannot become sharks, so we cannot swallow a one metre long fish. And we cannot become God with the wisdom and reach to manoeuvre the willful reprobate into a set of circumstances where the true state of his heart is plain to him and he falls upon the Rock for mercy.
But just because we in the Hebrews authors classroom cannot bring a wilful reprobate among us to repentance does not mean that no one can. And therefore, "It is impossible (for us) to bring that one to repentance", does not mean "It is impossible for that one to be brought to repentance (by God).
 
Mem

Mem

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Sep 23, 2014
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PaulThomson said:
We cannot become sharks, so we cannot swallow a one metre long fish. And we cannot become God with the wisdom and reach to manoeuvre the willful reprobate into a set of circumstances where the true state of his heart is plain to him and he falls upon the Rock for mercy.
But just because we in the Hebrews authors classroom cannot bring a wilful reprobate among us to repentance does not mean that no one can. And therefore, "It is impossible (for us) to bring that one to repentance", does not mean "It is impossible for that one to be brought to repentance (by God).
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I do like to think that there will always be hope as long as God lives, even for the 'worst' of us. If I think through the implications of each position, it seems the 'able to lose' has more hope if, indeed, they're never really 'lost' (that is, God always knows where we are even if He asks, "Mem, where are you?" On the other hand, what hope is there for the 'never saved to begin with' position? Just none, even as God lives.
 
S

Sipsey

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Sep 27, 2018
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GWH said:
No, it is because your reply in this post/reply does not explain how there is a meaningful difference.
With either wording, the apostate will burn.
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If God knows the beginning from the end (and He does), why on earth would He save someone to begin with that He knows will ultimately reject that salvation?
 
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