Some of my roman catholic friends were talking the other day about their Mary, and how she hears all their prayers and mediates between them and God.
This was confusing to me, so I didn't say anything to them at the time.
If their Mary can hear all their prayers, would that not ascribe to her attributes of deity, such as omnipresence (in the presence of all those people praying to her), which not even Satan has?
If their Mary can hear all their prayers, would that not ascribe to her attributes of deity, such as omniscience (knowing the very thoughts of the one praying, especially if it is only in their minds and hearts rather than out loud and verbal), which not even Satan knows?
If their Mary can exercise power in the lives of those praying to her, would that not ascribe to her attributes of deity, such as omnipotence (possessing the power of deity to exert her will in the affairs of this earth in the lives of those praying to her), of which Satan has limited influence, but that their Mary can overcome as being more powerful than Satan himself?
Where do scripture point out anywhere in all the 31,000+ verses of the Bible, revealing such attributes of deity to one woman, and based upon what?
[1 Timothy 2:5] For [there is] one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
It would seem that the beliefs of my RCC friends is diametrically opposed to the very word of God itself, although they have told me that their traditions and "magisterium" teachings are above the Bible, and thus interpreting difficult passages into something they don't seem to be saying, even though they seem contradictory in spite of what sound like slight-of-hand interpretations to make the text of the Bible say what it doesn't.
Folks, I don't want to offend my RCC friends, but how do we reconcile what appears to be absolute polar opposites in meaning? They also ascribe to their other "saints" some of the same attributes. I have always understood "one" to be one, and only one. They don't believe that Jesus and Mary are "one" and the same, but rather two different entities. How, then, can their popish declarations from the past and present offer any measure of apologetic that can rectify this seemingly glaring set of inconsistencies for a doctrine that didn't even exist as official doctrine for them until the 19th century?
Can anyone help me with this?
MM
This was confusing to me, so I didn't say anything to them at the time.
If their Mary can hear all their prayers, would that not ascribe to her attributes of deity, such as omnipresence (in the presence of all those people praying to her), which not even Satan has?
If their Mary can hear all their prayers, would that not ascribe to her attributes of deity, such as omniscience (knowing the very thoughts of the one praying, especially if it is only in their minds and hearts rather than out loud and verbal), which not even Satan knows?
If their Mary can exercise power in the lives of those praying to her, would that not ascribe to her attributes of deity, such as omnipotence (possessing the power of deity to exert her will in the affairs of this earth in the lives of those praying to her), of which Satan has limited influence, but that their Mary can overcome as being more powerful than Satan himself?
Where do scripture point out anywhere in all the 31,000+ verses of the Bible, revealing such attributes of deity to one woman, and based upon what?
[1 Timothy 2:5] For [there is] one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
It would seem that the beliefs of my RCC friends is diametrically opposed to the very word of God itself, although they have told me that their traditions and "magisterium" teachings are above the Bible, and thus interpreting difficult passages into something they don't seem to be saying, even though they seem contradictory in spite of what sound like slight-of-hand interpretations to make the text of the Bible say what it doesn't.
Folks, I don't want to offend my RCC friends, but how do we reconcile what appears to be absolute polar opposites in meaning? They also ascribe to their other "saints" some of the same attributes. I have always understood "one" to be one, and only one. They don't believe that Jesus and Mary are "one" and the same, but rather two different entities. How, then, can their popish declarations from the past and present offer any measure of apologetic that can rectify this seemingly glaring set of inconsistencies for a doctrine that didn't even exist as official doctrine for them until the 19th century?
Can anyone help me with this?
MM
You can't....the RCC is wrong in many ways. But, we must remember they do not call themselves...Christian.