We see the passages with the Pharisees that "believe on him" after Jesus gives an explanation. This could be in reference to belief in the words that he spoke rather than a belief in Christ. Why else would they then follow up by accusing Jesus of having a devil if they believed in Jesus Christ? The reference of "belief" in this case clearly isn't talking about the Pharisees believing in Jesus Christ as saviour. The verse just seems to indicate they were agreeable to Christ's preceding talking points. And even if we were to explore the concept that they believed in Christ yet were murderous, how does this rule out a later course correction like what was given to Paul?
Not everyone that says they believe actually believes (despite perhaps even fooling themselves in some cases). In that sense there is "true" vs "false" belief. But if you know in your heart that you believe in Christ and Christ's love flows through you, scripture tells us that we will be saved. We aren't perfect, and we will continually fail time and time again to share God's love the way we know is right. But it is through Grace and the calling of our nature to believe.
Regarding John 8 and the Jews, I broke this down in post #147 (last part). But we don't have to wonder if they believed in his words on on Christ himself. The text tells us that as he spake, many Jews believed on
him (on Christ).
Tou then asked a good question, "
Why else would they then follow up by accusing Jesus of having a devil if they believed in Jesus Christ?".
You have a point insofar as their outward behavior is concerned, but we have to remember, this is the Word of God, and God is the one telling us that they believed. Therefore, in whatever capacity they believed on Jesus Christ, we're told that they believed on him. If we look at the context, before God tells us that they believed, they heard Jesus say that if they didn't believe that he was God (I AM) (the "he" is not in the original text) that they would die in their sins.
John 8:24 (KJV)
I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I AM [he], ye shall die in your sins.
It could be that these Jews believed the same manner the Jews in John 12 believed.
John 12:42 (KJV)
Nevertheless among the chief rulers also many believed on him; but because of the Pharisees they did not confess him, lest they should be put out of the synagogue:
It could be that the Jews in John 8 believed within themselves out of a fear that Jesus' words might actually be true. But outwardly they still disdained him and his words. I'm just speculating to answer your question, but like I said, God is the onenwho told us that they believed on Jesus Christ. Yet, of course, we're told here that it didn't change anything insofar as their salvation is concerned.
Insofar as comparing this to the account of Saul of Tarsus, we're never told that Saul believed on Christ prior to God's revelation to him that he was chosen and that Christ was already in him.
But with these Jews, (however many there were), we can say without a shadow of a doubt that they
never became saved. This goes back to the doctrine of election and payment for sins. Without going too far into these doctrines right now, let me say that Christ only paid for the sins of those he chose to save, the elect. Let me explain how that fits in with the Jews of John 8.
John 8:44 (KJV)
Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do.....
In the scriptures, there are 3 types of persons in relation to Fathers.
1. God is your Father.
2. The Devil is your father.
3. You are fatherless.
Christ paid for the sins of His chosen people at the foundation of the world, that means he took upon himself their penalty of death by becoming sin for his people. This was enough to satisfy the demands of God's law. Now, as mankind would enter this world, over the course of time, they fit into one of the 3 categories.
If they were not elected unto salvation, this means that God can and does justly condemn them for their sin, and they have to pay for their own sin by their own death (Rom 6:23).
This means that they are a child of the devil, like Cain and Esau was.
Incidentally, this is also what it means to be hated in the Bible. It's the opposite of being loved which relates in every way to having had your sins paid for. Being hated means that you pay for your own sins. "Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated".
Then you have those whose sins were paid for (the elect) but God has not yet regenerated/saved that individual. This means that God is not yet his heavenly father and he is not yet a son of God. God identifies these people as
fatherless.
Exodus 22:22 (KJV)
Ye shall not afflict any widow, or fatherless child.
God also uses a widow to describe the same thing, but that is perhaps for another time. But here, in the law, which many consider obsolete, we begin to learn a great spiritual truth. Why does God only concern himself with the fatherless and never the motherless?
James 1:27 (KJV)
Pure religion and undefiled before God and the Father is this, To visit the fatherless and widows in their affliction, and to keep himself unspotted from the world.
Visiting the fatherless (and widows) was not literal, it was spiritually speaking of bringing the gospel to the world and as a result, God would apply his salvation upon all the fatherless (the elect whose sins were paid for) in his time.
In other words, Christ's atonement created spiritual orphans, which is another good example of not relying on a dictionary to define a word, as an orphan is defined as someone who has no father
or mother. But the Bible is its own dictionary and God defines an orphan as someone who has no father.
Lamentations 5:3 (KJV)
We are orphans and fatherless,
our mothers are as widows.
And an orphan needs adoption, which I exactly what Christ's atonement accomplished. It not only made the elect orphans, but it also allowed them to become adopted upon God saving them.
Ephesians 1:5 (KJV)
Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will,
Galatians 4:5 (KJV)
To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.
Romans 8:15 (KJV)
For ye have not received the spirit of bondage again to fear; but ye have received the Spirit of adoption, whereby we cry, Abba, Father.
I hope you can see how all this fits together and finds agreement in the scriptures. So, anyone who is called a child of the devil already has a father and is not fatherless.
Nowhere do the scriptures teach that Christ's death turned the whole world into orphans waitingfor adoption. Here we are given confirmation since children of the devil still existed after the cross.
Acts 13:10 (KJV)
And said, O full of all subtilty and all mischief, thou child of the devil, thou enemy of all righteousness, wilt thou not cease to pervert the right ways of the Lord?