You said, "Laws guaranteed concubines rights like other wives."
Hagar did not have the same rights as Sarah. After Abraham died, Isaac got everything, and Ishmael (the eldest son) only got a gift. Gen 25:5-6
That was before the laws about such things were given through Moses.
CONCUBINE, n.
L., to lie together, to lie down.
1.
A woman who cohabits with a man, without the authority of a legal marriage; a
woman kept for lewd purposes; a kept mistress.
2. A
wife of inferior condition; a lawful wife, but not united to the man by the usual ceremonies, and of inferior condition. Such were Hagar and Keturah, the concubines of Abraham; and such concubines were allowed by the Roman laws
https://av1611.com/kjbp/kjv-dictionary/concubinate.html
Meh.... this particular authors definition. The second is probably true of Abraham's time. The lexicographer here is doesn't make a distinction between Roman and Jewish culture in what you quoted.
CONCUBINE, a slave woman in ancient societies who was the legal chattel of her master, and could enter in legitimate sexual relations with her master...
The concubine was not a mere servant yet she was not free and did not have the rights of the free wife.
Read the Bible. After a Jewish man takes a concubine, he can't sell her as a slave. She may have been a slave before, but she's a wife after.
Here is a quote from the Wikipedia entry for Pilegesh.
Pilegesh (
Hebrew: פִּילֶגֶשׁ) is a
Hebrew term for a
concubine , a marital companion of
social and
legal status inferior to that of a wife.
[1] Among the
Israelites, men commonly acknowledged their concubines, and such women enjoyed the same rights in the house as legitimate wives.
[2]
I would say, yes, she is still lower status because these women are called 'concubines' in scripture, which we might argue is a label that showed their slave social status prior to marriage. But they do get full rights as wives in the Old Testament
after Moses. Ishmael was not to be heir with the son of the free woman, but half the patriarchs of the tribes of Israel were born to concubines and their tribes inherited their land.
In translation, Keturah is called both 'concubine' and 'wife.'
Defining concubine as 'kept for lewd purposes' when talking about Hebrew concubines is a ridiculous definition. A Jewish man in the first century who married a household servant who then became a Christian and was taught, 'Husbands love your wives' was required to love his wife, who was a concubine. If he only had one wife/concubine, then she wasn't a 'secondary wife' either. And their having sex and having children would not have to be any more 'lewd' than if he had married a free woman.
Exodus 21 did not allow men in this situation to sell the woman if he wanted to separate from her. I am not sure if a divorce certificate were required or not. It was not identical to marrying a free virgin girl, but it was a form of marriage back in their day.
https://www.biblegateway.com/resources/encyclopedia-of-the-bible/Concubine
In the Bible,
a concubine is a woman who lives with a man as if she were a wife, but without having the same status as a wife. Concubines in the patriarchal age and beyond held an
inferior rank—they were “secondary” wives. A
concubine could not marry her master because of her slave status, although, for her, the relationship was exclusive and ongoing. Early on, it seems that
concubines were used to bear children for men whose wives were barren (see
Genesis 16:1–4). Later, it seems that
concubines were kept simply for sexual pleasure. 2 Chronicles 11:21). Concubines in Israel possessed some of the same rights as legitimate wives,
without the same respect.
https://www.gotquestions.org/concubine-concubines.html
You said, "A better understanding of 'concubine' would be a slave RAISED to the status of wife."
Compare that to your own quote from Biblegateway. Legally,, concubines in Israel were raised to the status of wife.
I wonder why the II Chronicles verse was presented as evidence that 'concubines were kept simply for sexual pleasure.'
The passage it says:
21 Rehoboam loved Maakah daughter of Absalom more than any of his other wives and concubines. In all, he had eighteen wives and sixty concubines, twenty-eight sons and sixty daughters.
Does the commentator think Rehoboam only kept the concubines for sexual pleasure, and not the wives? He could have had some of those kids with the concubines, too. It is unlikely that a concubine was chosen for a political alliance, but he could have had romantic interest in his wives also. Anyway, the verse doesn't prove its point. I would assume a man that filled a harem like that did for political reasons (in the case of wives), for reasons related to sex and female companionship, or to demonstrate what a powerful high status man he was, or just because that is what kings did back then and he was following the culture....or some combination of those factors.
Slave, inferior rank, chattel,
They weren't allowed to sell concubines, so not 'chattel.'
without respect, being used for her reproductive abilities, being keep for lewd purposes and the master's sexual pleasure certainly don't sound like elevation or being raised to the status of a wife.
Well, that depends on the husband and the wife you are talking about.
It pretty much sounds like what it was - sex trafficking. No need to try to sanitize it or make it more palatable. Concubinage was not an elevation for certain women. Concubinage was a degradation of God's original plan for marriage. We find God's original plan for marriage in Genesis before the Fall and in Eph 5.
God allowed it and regulated it. Not allowing concubines to be sold and requiring they had wife rights to food, clothing, and sex probably elevated their status quite a bit.
And if a man took a woman who was a servant in his household as concubine/wife, that does not mean there marriage was bad or that they could not love each other. Think about Ben Hur in that Charleston Heston movie. He probably would have been a good husband to a concubine if that rock hadn't fallen off the roof when the Roman official went by.