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What colour was she then, green? red? yellow? He married a Cu****e. Cu****es are normally black. Not to mention Moses was probably either black, chocolate brown or red, given he was raised an egyptian. That she was black is confirmed by Numbers 12 where God turned her skin from dark to white with leprosy.
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C
The Hebrew and Greek does not say 'Ethiopian', it says 'Cush', some English translations translate this word as Ethiopian which is incorrect, but even still a reasonable mind can work out that the people that live in the geographical area of Ethiopia are not the same people that the Bible is referring to. Remember Noah had three sons Shem, Ham and Japheth. Genesis 10:6 tells us the sons of Ham were Cush, Mizraim, Phut and Canaan, Noah and his wife were both white race 'perfect in generations', so naturally their children were also of the same race. Now;
At that time in history which we refer to there were two different countries named Cush in the Bible, one was the geographical area of Ethiopia as we know it today, lying south of the Sudan, a land called 'Cush'. However there was another Cush in this time, it was in eastern Mesopotamia, and in both these countries at that time any black person found would have been put in chains or killed on the spot, without question and this is historically verifiable. Remember Moses had killed an Egyptian who he found beating a Israelite, Moses in no way would have married outside his own race. So where did Moses get his wife, well in Exodus 2:15-21 we are told who Moses' wife was, "And Moses was content to dwell with man: and he gave Moses Zipporah".
We know positively from the bible that Moses married the daughter of the priest of Midian - his name was 'Reuel' means, friend of God, who were the Midianites from whom Moses got his wife? Cush was a valley near the Tigris and Euphrates rivers in Mesopotamia, not Africa, the Midianites were not dwelling in Africa, and it was to this land of Cush in Mesopotamia that Moses fled because the Pharaoh wanted to kill him.
The son of royalty would not take a negroid from Sudan as a wife. It is true that Moses married a Midianite, a dscendant of Abraham and that she was in the land of Cush in Mesopotamia where Moses sought sanctuary. Moses was in fact guarding the flocks of Reuel his father in law when God appeared to him in the burning bush.
In no way is it understood that Moses married a black woman, not from a historical point of view or Biblical, the jealosy and sedition of Miriam is a different matter.
At that time in history which we refer to there were two different countries named Cush in the Bible, one was the geographical area of Ethiopia as we know it today, lying south of the Sudan, a land called 'Cush'. However there was another Cush in this time, it was in eastern Mesopotamia, and in both these countries at that time any black person found would have been put in chains or killed on the spot, without question and this is historically verifiable. Remember Moses had killed an Egyptian who he found beating a Israelite, Moses in no way would have married outside his own race. So where did Moses get his wife, well in Exodus 2:15-21 we are told who Moses' wife was, "And Moses was content to dwell with man: and he gave Moses Zipporah".
We know positively from the bible that Moses married the daughter of the priest of Midian - his name was 'Reuel' means, friend of God, who were the Midianites from whom Moses got his wife? Cush was a valley near the Tigris and Euphrates rivers in Mesopotamia, not Africa, the Midianites were not dwelling in Africa, and it was to this land of Cush in Mesopotamia that Moses fled because the Pharaoh wanted to kill him.
The son of royalty would not take a negroid from Sudan as a wife. It is true that Moses married a Midianite, a dscendant of Abraham and that she was in the land of Cush in Mesopotamia where Moses sought sanctuary. Moses was in fact guarding the flocks of Reuel his father in law when God appeared to him in the burning bush.
In no way is it understood that Moses married a black woman, not from a historical point of view or Biblical, the jealosy and sedition of Miriam is a different matter.
C
Wow, the lengths you will go to in order to defend your view. First, I would like to see where you learn your geography? Even if there was a second Cush, why did Miriam and Aaron oppose the marriage to his second wife, not Zipporah? The same reason you do. Second, there is no evidence of the skin color of Noah. Third, Moses fled to Mesopotamia? I promised myself not to respond to your foolishness, and here I am....sometimes I just have to stand up for the truth.
C
It's a crime against both races, as God has made boundries and divisions and each after it's own kind, and of course 'Thou shalt not adulterate'
adulterate - 'to debase by adding inferior materials or elements; make impure by admixture, use cheaper or less disireable goods'
Satan has had alot of success adding another meaning to that word, but God was not repeating Himself with commandment ten 'thou shalt not covet thy neighbour's wfe."
adulterate - 'to debase by adding inferior materials or elements; make impure by admixture, use cheaper or less disireable goods'
Satan has had alot of success adding another meaning to that word, but God was not repeating Himself with commandment ten 'thou shalt not covet thy neighbour's wfe."
L
this is one of a few of the things you said that I actually agree with. Christmas did originate from pagan holidays, and it is my personal belief that God is not happy with us converting a pagan holiday into a Christian one. Why would God want a pagan practice? Why could we have not simply found our own day to celebrate Christ's birth on?
First of all, you cannot bring in the Torah unless you actually follow the Torah. I don't know you, so I don't know your personal beliefs, but I know the majority of the people on this site are not people who follow the Torah, so off the bat these two do not apply to them.
Second, you are taking these out of context.
Deut 7:1-3 reads: "When the LORD your God brings you into the land which you go to possess, and has cast out many nations before you, the Hittites and the Girga****es and the Amorites and the Canaanites and the Perizzites and the Hivites and the Jebusites, seven nations greater and mightier than you, and when the LORD your God delivers them over to you, you shall conquer them and utterly destroy them. You shall make no covenant with them nor show mercy to them. Nor shall you make marriages with them. You shall not give your daughter to their son, nor take their daughter for your son."
This passage is telling Israel (i.e. people who actually FOLLOW the laws outlined in the Torah) to not marry certain gentile(read: GENTILE not GOY) tribes, because those tribes would lead them to sin. God is keeping His people from becoming a sinful nation by keeping them from marrying people who do not have the same beliefs as them (those beliefs come from following the TORAH).
Also, God allows people to convert to Judaism, so obviously He allows interracial marriages. Interfaith marriages are not something He is big on (don't be unevenly yoked and all that jazz), but the way you present it obviously comes from a poor understanding of the Bible.
Malachi 3:6 "I the LORD do not change" coupled with God choosing Israel to be His chosen people makes it obvious that judaism could not be a synagogue of satan. God does not abide in sin. Why would God choose a tribe of people to be His own if they were a synagogue of Satan?
I don't know much about this tribulation stuff, so I'll have to ask you to explain this one to me.
why?
false! This statement shows a complete lack of understanding of the Biblical view on slavery. Jews did not condone slavery in the sense that they could own people. They had servants that worked for them in order to pay off a debt. Once that debt was paid the servants could go free. If, however, the servant liked the master he worked for he could pierce his ear and become a bondservant for that master. In that case, the bondservant would stay with his chosen master for the rest of his life.
Ever heard of the year of jubilee? Every 7 years all servants would go free and their debts would be forgiven. This is not something you would find in the type of slavery you are thinking about.
Slavery amongst Jews was more along the lines of indentured servants than slaves like those owned by Americans in the 1800s.
again, unless you follow the Torah, no it is not.
If you do follow the Torah, you would know that in the Jewish community they do everything possible to avoid death penalties. Life is one of the highest valued things among them, so they would not be quick to go about stoning a person or something of the sort.
reasoning behind this, please?
this is the second thing I agree with you on. Personally, I celebrate the death and resurrection of my Lord during Passover since that is when the event actually occured. I'm not really big on church-instituted holidays. I mean, I partake in them, but not for Biblical reasons. I find different times to actually celebrate and reflect on such things than the days set by men who were trying to 1) incorporate pagan holidays into a Christian calendar by making them "Christian" and 2) distance themselves from any sort of Jewish traditions.
First of all, you cannot bring in the Torah unless you actually follow the Torah. I don't know you, so I don't know your personal beliefs, but I know the majority of the people on this site are not people who follow the Torah, so off the bat these two do not apply to them.
Second, you are taking these out of context.
Deut 7:1-3 reads: "When the LORD your God brings you into the land which you go to possess, and has cast out many nations before you, the Hittites and the Girga****es and the Amorites and the Canaanites and the Perizzites and the Hivites and the Jebusites, seven nations greater and mightier than you, and when the LORD your God delivers them over to you, you shall conquer them and utterly destroy them. You shall make no covenant with them nor show mercy to them. Nor shall you make marriages with them. You shall not give your daughter to their son, nor take their daughter for your son."
This passage is telling Israel (i.e. people who actually FOLLOW the laws outlined in the Torah) to not marry certain gentile(read: GENTILE not GOY) tribes, because those tribes would lead them to sin. God is keeping His people from becoming a sinful nation by keeping them from marrying people who do not have the same beliefs as them (those beliefs come from following the TORAH).
Also, God allows people to convert to Judaism, so obviously He allows interracial marriages. Interfaith marriages are not something He is big on (don't be unevenly yoked and all that jazz), but the way you present it obviously comes from a poor understanding of the Bible.
Malachi 3:6 "I the LORD do not change" coupled with God choosing Israel to be His chosen people makes it obvious that judaism could not be a synagogue of satan. God does not abide in sin. Why would God choose a tribe of people to be His own if they were a synagogue of Satan?
I don't know much about this tribulation stuff, so I'll have to ask you to explain this one to me.
why?
false! This statement shows a complete lack of understanding of the Biblical view on slavery. Jews did not condone slavery in the sense that they could own people. They had servants that worked for them in order to pay off a debt. Once that debt was paid the servants could go free. If, however, the servant liked the master he worked for he could pierce his ear and become a bondservant for that master. In that case, the bondservant would stay with his chosen master for the rest of his life.
Ever heard of the year of jubilee? Every 7 years all servants would go free and their debts would be forgiven. This is not something you would find in the type of slavery you are thinking about.
Slavery amongst Jews was more along the lines of indentured servants than slaves like those owned by Americans in the 1800s.
again, unless you follow the Torah, no it is not.
If you do follow the Torah, you would know that in the Jewish community they do everything possible to avoid death penalties. Life is one of the highest valued things among them, so they would not be quick to go about stoning a person or something of the sort.
reasoning behind this, please?
this is the second thing I agree with you on. Personally, I celebrate the death and resurrection of my Lord during Passover since that is when the event actually occured. I'm not really big on church-instituted holidays. I mean, I partake in them, but not for Biblical reasons. I find different times to actually celebrate and reflect on such things than the days set by men who were trying to 1) incorporate pagan holidays into a Christian calendar by making them "Christian" and 2) distance themselves from any sort of Jewish traditions.
M
I'm not going to read thru all this because it makes me too angry, I just want to say I'm really really offended by the idea that interracial marriage is unbiblical. To defend that idea using the bible is simply despicable. The whole concept of different races is unbiblical to begin with. We are created as one race: the human race, and that's that. Yes there are differences between different people groups, but to say that I can marry someone with brown eyes but that I can't marry someone with a brown skin is just arbitrary.
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