Question: Is There an Innerrant Bible?

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Nov 30, 2012
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#41
No I am not trying to cast doubt on the authority of scripture. I absolutely believe that there truly is an inerrant Bible that contains zero mistakes.
And what about French Bibles, German ones, Chinese ones, Arabic ones? Or does God only love us English speaking people enough to give us an inerrant translation?
 

Andrew1

Senior Member
May 11, 2013
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#42
I think the key question that needs to be asked is: define error.
error:
a deviation from accuracy or correctness; a mistake, as in action or speech: (dictionary.com)


And Jesus answering said unto them, Do ye not therefore err, because ye know not the scriptures, neither the power of God? (Matthew 12:24)

Errors are mistakes.
 

Andrew1

Senior Member
May 11, 2013
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#43
Andrew, I think it is your turn to explain your position.
My position is that the Bible is inerrant throughout. And if there is such a thing as a scripture that does not affect doctrine I believe that part of scripture is inerrant as well because I believe in the power of God.
 

Andrew1

Senior Member
May 11, 2013
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#44
Good thing we have an inerrant God who gives us His inerrant Spirit :)
And thank that inerrant God who gave me His inerrant Spirit by which lead me to His inerrant word :)
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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#45
I thought it was obvious, oh well, yes I'm a King James Bible believer :)

ok. so .. unicorns? ;)

more seriously though - but related - do you believe Proverbs 30:28 is talking about spiders or lizards? the KJV translated the word "spider" but almost every translation ever since into English has rendered it "lizard" and there is a large amount of linguistic evidence backing up the correction. i'm a fan of spiders, moreso thatn lizards, for absolutely no good reason but personal preference, so i am partial to the idea of "spider" in this verse. but i looked into it when i saw that there was a difference in all these other translations, and i can't poke a single hole in the scholarship. not that i'm any kind of scholar at all. what do you think, as an "inerrant" KJV-onlyist? can you conclusively show me it should be "spider" ? i would personally love to see that.

the other thing, as pointed out, that i can't escape about KJV-ism, is that there are so many other languages on earth than English. which is the "inerrant" Spanish or Dutch or Chinese version???
do all the people of the earth have to learn English - and Victorian English specifically - before they can actually have the word of God in its pure form? if so, why English? why not Hebrew & Greek?
 
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Andrew1

Senior Member
May 11, 2013
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#46
all Scripture IS given by inspiration of God. And we do know where the discrepancies lie. It continues to be profitable as outlined. and it would be foolish to say it was not.
I see, we know where the discrepancies lie, but that's not exactly an answer to my question, the question is (to revise it somewhat), which among those discrepancies are the word of God and is there a book called the Bible that contain the correct words out of these discrepancies and is therefore inerrant?

Most of the discrepancies are unimportant.
So you acknowledge that there are important discrepancies among the differing translations? Then I guess we at least better get the Bible that doesn't contain any of the improper readings among the important discrepancies.

Certainly there are no good grounds for seeing the KJV as 'the inspired text'. Good text though it may be it contains far too many problems and contains spurious texts..

If God had wanted a perfect text it would have been a Greek txt so that everyone could share it. But such a text does not exist and it would be absurd to suggest that it did. The discovery of p66 has confirmed the accuracy of the Revised Text.
Might God not have waited till just before people began to start multiplying upon the face of the earth to make his inerrant word available to as many people as possible?

we are far better off than the early church were.
In regards to the widespread availability of Gods mistakeless word I agree :)
 

Nick01

Senior Member
Jul 15, 2013
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#47
error:
a deviation from accuracy or correctness; a mistake, as in action or speech: (dictionary.com)


And Jesus answering said unto them, Do ye not therefore err, because ye know not the scriptures, neither the power of God? (Matthew 12:24)

Errors are mistakes.
But an error in terms of what? Compared to what? An error, by definition, is something that is deficient in comparison to the 'perfect' iteration? So what are you comparing to?
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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#48
Might God not have waited till just before people began to start multiplying upon the face of the earth to make his inerrant word available to as many people as possible?
you mean when Adam & Eve were cast out of the garden?

or when Noah parked the ark?

if you're looking at modern times, the world's population ballooned in the 1950's. not the early 1600's.

i think it is very significant however that Christ came at a time when there was a relative peace - pax romana - over Europe & the middle east, and that Alexander had gone before, spreading the Greek language, culture and attitude of reason across so wide an area. this facilitated the spread of the gospel - transmitted in Greek speaking and writing.

with the empire-building conquests of England, Spain and others in the 17th and 18th centuries, the Bible was also spread across the world (in more than one language) and the KJV certainly was a tool in that. but so were the Geneva Bible and German, Porteugese and Spanish language editions, and these others were wider dispersed. English colonies didn't even print the KJV when they started printing their own Bibles -- that would have been a copyright infringement. so the first bibles printed in America were the Eliot Bible and German language ones.

today there are more Chinese speakers than any other language, and Spanish is spoken in more countries than any other language. what do you think, is there an 'inerrant' Spanish & Chinese translation? or do billions of people remain hopeless until they learn Victorian English?

the KJV is a beautiful translation and i'm quite thankful that it was made. many of the scriptures i have memorized in my heart are from this translation. i still think it's pretty ridiculous to think this is the "definitive" Word of God above every other rendering of it ((why English? seems vain)), neither the "best translation" into English.
 
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valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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#49
I see, we know where the discrepancies lie, but that's not exactly an answer to my question, the question is (to revise it somewhat), which among those discrepancies are the word of God and is there a book called the Bible that contain the correct words out of these discrepancies and is therefore inerrant?
The answer is NO. By the way which of the printings of the KJV is the inspired one lol? Did God give you details of the edition? None of them were absolutely accurate. Strange that God was so concerned about inerrancy and then overlooked the need to ensure the accuracy of the printing?



So you acknowledge that there are important discrepancies among the differing translations? Then I guess we at least better get the Bible that doesn't contain any of the improper readings among the important discrepancies.
But there isn't one. True the KJV has more of the inaccurate readings than most, but we mustn't reject it for that reason. It was a good attempt at the time.

In fact there are no really important inaccuracies in the modern Greek texts

Might God not have waited till just before people began to start multiplying upon the face of the earth to make his inerrant word available to as many people as possible?

Might not God have sent a copy down from Heaven of an inerrant text.? Maybe Watchtower has it after all LOL (Although their 'inerrant' text keeps changing). But He didn't. And He was certainly not so fond of English that He chose it as the basis of the only inerrant translation. Sorry but your claims are ridiculous. And the suggestion that you got it from the Holy Spirit is blasphemous.

In regards to the widespread availability of Gods mistakeless word I agree :)
Do you know, you are SUCH a sad case? I presume you also believe in fairies?
 
Jul 6, 2015
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#50
Simple Question: Is (that's present tense not just the original autographs which no longer exist) the Bible (a tangible book you can hold in your hands containing within it the 66 books of the Old and New Testaments) The inerrant (that means it has no errors or mistakes) word of God? If yes, then where can I find this inerrant Bible with no mistakes?

inerrant:
free from error (Merriam-Webster)
free from error; infallible. (dictionary.com)
Incapable of being wrong (oxford dictionaries.com)
[Rev 22:18 NKJV] For I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: If anyone adds to these things, God will add to him the plagues that are written in this book;
[Rev 22:19 NKJV] and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part from the Book of Life, from the holy city, and [from] the things which are written in this book.

These warnings would suggest that the book of Revelation, at least, has been tampered with. Unless someone can name another warning in scripture that was not needed? (i.e. nobody incurred or will incur the penalty of it)

If it has been tampered with, we can still rest assured that if we study and show ourselves approved, we can get to the truth =)
 

Andrew1

Senior Member
May 11, 2013
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#51
But an error in terms of what? Compared to what? An error, by definition, is something that is deficient in comparison to the 'perfect' iteration? So what are you comparing to?
Why are you trying to make it so complicated? An error is a mistake. If the Bible contains errors its not inerrant, its not that complicated. I believe the Bible is inerrant, meaning: no mistakes.
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
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#52
So all scripture only was given by inspiration of God and isno longer the inerrant word of God? What about 2Timothy 3:16?

All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

Or does this passage no longer apply to modern day Christians?
All Scripture is God-breathed (theo neustos).
Immaterial errors do not alter that.

Technical errors making the Bible "in error" is a red herring, misnomer and non-issue.
The issue is truth and trustworthiness. . .the rest is meaningless.
God has preserved the truth and trustworthiness of his word written.
The rest is a parlor game.


You are more interested in games than the substance of faith regarding God's word written.
 
Jul 6, 2015
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#53
Why are you trying to make it so complicated? An error is a mistake. If the Bible contains errors its not inerrant, its not that complicated. I believe the Bible is inerrant, meaning: no mistakes.
I think calling it inerrant is an over-simplification. I understand the reason to do it; many people claim that if there is an error in it, it's not 'the word of God'. But that's just a hyperbolic fallacy. If someone made changes, or didn't interpret it quite accurately from one language to another, that doesn't make the whole thing 'not the word of God'. Just means we have to be more diligent in our studies, proving all things.

The wonderful thing about the Bible is it tends to say the same thing over...and over...and over. So if you find a place where it seems to contradict something it has said over and over and over, well, someone probably made a translation mistake or made a nefarious change to it.
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
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#54
Actually my intent is to do the exact opposite, I'm trying to get people to admit their true position that they don't truly believe in inerrancy and then I can point them in the right direction from their.
Their most absolutely is an inerrant Bible that can be believed 100%
There is nothing in our Bibles now that cannot be believed 100%.
 

Andrew1

Senior Member
May 11, 2013
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#55
ok. so .. unicorns? ;)


U'NICORN, n. [L. unicornis; unus, one, and cornu, horn.]
1. an animal with one horn; the monoceros. this name is often applied to the rhinoceros.

RHINOC'EROS, n. [L. rhinoceros; Gr. nose-horn.]
A genus of quadrupeds of two species, one of which, the unicorn, as a single horn growing almost erect from the nose.
(Noah Websters 1828 dictionary)

Yes I believe in unicorns :)


more seriously though - but related - do you believe Proverbs 30:28 is talking about spiders or lizards? the KJV translated the word "spider" but almost every translation ever since into English has rendered it "lizard" and there is a large amount of linguistic evidence backing up the correction. i'm a fan of spiders, moreso thatn lizards, for absolutely no good reason but personal preference, so i am partial to the idea of "spider" in this verse. but i looked into it when i saw that there was a difference in all these other translations, and i can't poke a single hole in the scholarship. not that i'm any kind of scholar at all. what do you think, as an "inerrant" KJV-onlyist? can you conclusively show me it should be "spider" ? i would personally love to see that.


No I can't conclusively prove anything but I trust that God preserved his word without error and I believe on that basis that "spider" is the correct reading. from what I have briefly looked into, the reason scholars try to say "spider" is not accurate is that a different word for spider is used elsewhere in the Bible. However this isn't a good argument because a different word is used in Leviticus 11:30 for Lizard as well not just in the King James Bible but in the NIV, ESV, NASB and others. The point is even in English there are different words that have the same meaning. The context of the passage itself is referring to creatures with a seeming disadvantage. The spider though small manages to make its home in kings palaces by using its hands. Here's more on that: "Spider" or "Lizard" in Proverbs 30:28? - King James Version Today

the other thing, as pointed out, that i can't escape about KJV-ism, is that there are so many other languages on earth than English. which is the "inerrant" Spanish or Dutch or Chinese version???
do all the people of the earth have to learn English - and Victorian English specifically


I believe that there are many good translations in other languages based on the Hebrew moseretic text and the Greek textus receptus, but God never promised to preserve His word in every language. He just promised to preserve his word. People who translate the Bible into other languages ought to do there best to be faithful to those underlying manuscripts and not deviate from the King James Bible reading.

- before they can actually have the word of God in its pure form? if so, why English? why not Hebrew & Greek?
Hebrew and Greek are only spoken by a very few people in comparison to English. God by his providence knew that English would become the worlds dominant and most important language. English makes perfect sense.
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
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#56
all Scripture IS given by inspiration of God. And we do know where the discrepancies lie. It continues to be profitable as outlined. and it would be foolish to say it was not. Most of the discrepancies are unimportant.

Certainly there are no good grounds for seeing the KJV as 'the inspired text'.
There is no Biblical warrant for maintaining any translation is God-breathed (2Tim 3:16).

Good text though it may be it contains far too many problems and contains spurious texts.

If God had wanted a perfect text it would have been a Greek txt so that everyone could share it. But such a text does not exist and it would be absurd to suggest that it did. The discovery of p66 has confirmed the accuracy of the Revised Text.

we are far better off than the early church were.
 

Andrew1

Senior Member
May 11, 2013
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#57
I think calling it inerrant is an over-simplification. I understand the reason to do it; many people claim that if there is an error in it, it's not 'the word of God'. But that's just a hyperbolic fallacy. If someone made changes, or didn't interpret it quite accurately from one language to another, that doesn't make the whole thing 'not the word of God'. Just means we have to be more diligent in our studies, proving all things.The wonderful thing about the Bible is it tends to say the same thing over...and over...and over. So if you find a place where it seems to contradict something it has said over and over and over, well, someone probably made a translation mistake or made a nefarious change to it.
So are you saying that only the underlying manuscripts are inerrant? which ones are inerrant, masoretic, septuagint, textus receptus, sinaiticus, vaticanus? As I understand it the word of God is referring to those things which are inspired by God. How can a book be God's word if God cannot lie does not make mistakes? It's His word after all, not mans.
 
Jul 6, 2015
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#58
So are you saying that only the underlying manuscripts are inerrant? which ones are inerrant, masoretic, septuagint, textus receptus, sinaiticus, vaticanus? As I understand it the word of God is referring to those things which are inspired by God. How can a book be God's word if God cannot lie does not make mistakes? It's His word after all, not mans.
[Rev 22:18 NKJV] For I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: If anyone adds to these things, God will add to him the plagues that are written in this book;
[Rev 22:19 NKJV] and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part from the Book of Life, from the holy city, and [from] the things which are written in this book.

Why assign a penalty if someone wasn't going to do it? Can you cite one other warning with a penalty that nobody will ever incur?
 
I

Is

Guest
#59
In Seminary, we translated from the Masoretic texts. I know in Ph.D Greek courses, they translate the LXX. So yes, some differences appear. I have also spent some time studying the LXX in Greek, as well as comparing words to the ones that appear in Hebrew, and the Greek New Testament. But none of the differences affect doctrine. I know Jeremiah, the LXX takes away a lot of things. Hence, most translations use the Masoretic, although the things that are missing are mostly "The Lord says" and things which are not doctrinal in nature.

As far as the Greek texts, the same thing applies. The differences in the manuscripts are so tiny as to not affect doctrine. If you learned Greek, you could get a UBS or Nestle-Alland NT and all the textual differences are written below the text for every difference. After a while, you begin to see how these differences do not affect the text.

As for mistakes, we are talking sometimes one stroke of one letter, copied wrong, changing the word from men to donkeys, or things of that sort. Again, small errors that do not affect doctrine! Sometimes a difference might be the case of the word in Greek, or sometimes the tense of the verb - especially in Hebrew, where dropping a vowel point means a different vowel. (And yes, the vowel points were not in the original manuscripts, but that is because the people spoke Hebrew, and they didn't need them. When the Jews started losing Hebrew, the Masorets stepped in and added the vowel points for clarity and to preserve the unwritten aspect of the text)

The only reason I picked this quote from Wikipedia, is because it says exactly what my theological books say about infallibilty, so rather than type it all out, my fingers having some big issues these days, I copied and pasted. I would not normally use Wikipedia, unless it said exactly what was in my theology books.

I also compare between the modern translations and the Greek and Hebrew. It helps me to see the differences, but more important to appreciate the closeness of the texts. It says so much to me, that despite these human imperfections in transmitting the text, God totally preserves his Word. You don't need an inerrant text, you need to realize how God works in the lives of people to pass down his text, and for us, as long as 3500 years after some of the OT books, and 1900-1950 years later for the NT, we have the living Word of God to read, to study and to learn and grow from!


I hope that answers your questions. But feel free to ask more.
If you learned Greek, you could get a UBS or Nestle-Alland NT
Nestle's follows Manuscripte C and UBS follows Manuscript B, the Textus Receptus follos Manscript L, W, 1, 13, pm, vg, sy.

So, which Greek? Aleph1, Aleph2, Aleph3, B1, B2, B3, C, L, W, Textus Receptus, Wescott and Hort, Scrivener's, Alfred, Griesbach, Elzevir, Erasmus, Tischendorf, Lachman, Souter, von Soden, Hodge-Farstad, Nestle's-Aland, (If so which edition between 1 and 26?, which printing of the 26th) UBS-Aland, Black, Metzger, Wikgren (Which edition between 1 and 4?) or the Greek English Diglot for the Use of Translators.

Recent scholarship demonstrates that the majority of manuscripts, as seen in the traditional Greek Textus Receptus represents the earliest, broadest (numerically and geographically) and most consistent edition of the New Testament. On the other hand the new versions and their underlying unsettled Nestle's-Aland type eclectic text, use manuscripts, from one local.
 
Jul 6, 2015
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#60
Simple Question: Is (that's present tense not just the original autographs which no longer exist) the Bible (a tangible book you can hold in your hands containing within it the 66 books of the Old and New Testaments) The inerrant (that means it has no errors or mistakes) word of God? If yes, then where can I find this inerrant Bible with no mistakes?

inerrant:
free from error (Merriam-Webster)
free from error; infallible. (dictionary.com)
Incapable of being wrong (oxford dictionaries.com)
Well, it's quite easy to answer that question. The bible states that the world was created in seven days. That's a mistake, right at the very beginning. The bible's 66 books are also chosen by men whose interpretations fitted with the common consensus of the time. This was deliberate, to unite Christian Rome and Pagan Rome under Constantine. That's evidence of political manipulation. And of course, there have been older texts found after the KJV was written which prove additional sentences were added in less archaic parchments.

Of course, the bottom line of the matter is that nobody can prove the authorship of several biblical books, nor prove that many of the things attested to, actually happened.

Belief is just that. Belief. You will believe what you will believe.