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trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
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The prophet Isaiah lived in the eighth and early seventh centuries BC. He was from Jerusalem and began his ministry in 740 BC, the year of King Uzziah’s death.

The golden age of Latin literature is a period consisting roughly of the time from 75 BC to AD 14, covering the end of the Roman Republic and the reign of Augustus Caesar.
As I said, the KJV translators used the term from Vulgate, probably because people were used to it. I do not see your point.
 
Jul 23, 2018
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I have to confess, when you first started saying something, I was very resistant to your input. You see, just recently I have been studying the old testament more. I have learned of Yud Heh Vav Heh and many other names of God, as well as the names of our Messiah. I have enjoyed learning them, as they have helped me to also learn Their attributes as well as help me to better rightly interpret some things, as well as see patterns used and what not. I have been trying to understand why their is so much division between a Messianic Jews and the Saved Gentiles; after all, we should all be on the same page, Christ's page. My end goal in my studies is finding harmony within all the scriptures. Until I do and probably after, I know my understanding demonstates my limited understanding. I enjoy using the name Yeshua, and asked some ppl in the chat room their opinions because it does seem to be a source of contention for many. I didn't understand that. With all that said, u made a valid point. My entire reason for talking about Yeshua, Jesus Christ, Emmanuel, is to point to His Authority, His Truth, His Way and His Life. If it all gets lost in the translation because folks have no idea who this Yeshua is, then it might confuse ppl and point them away from Him. I will definitely still be using the original hebrew names, because they touch my heart for some reason. But I will not feel so reluctant to using Jesus or Christ as though they are not accurate. Thank you Nehamiah for your time and for your input. God Bless you and yours...:)
It is mainly a jewish thingy.
A local messianic ministry told me they are trying to attract jews. One way they do it is to celebrate the feasts and use ot terms that jews are familiar with.
The gospel when preached to the jews is needful of their heritage and the O T. It is not quite the same presentation.

One example is the passover re enactment the orthadox jews act out.
They dont realize they are acting out the passion of the cross and yeshuah
 

rlm68

Active member
Jul 23, 2018
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I have to go and work hahahaha

I'll answer later.

But I stand by what I state: the Bible is full of things that prove the Catholics changed scripture.

No one has to believe it, but even they have admitted to some of the changes in their encyclopedia's!!
 

rlm68

Active member
Jul 23, 2018
486
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Hello?
Did you look it up?


I gave you what Elohim means in Hebrew (Singular ONE GOD). So no, the Hebrew/Jews never believed God was 3 person throughout entire Old Testament and Jesus (I AM) creator of all was here from day 1 with Adam.

Obviously, if the Hebrews know God is only ONE PERSON, why DON'T YOU?


See ya later Brothers and sisters in Christ!!
 

CharliRenee

Member
Staff member
Nov 4, 2014
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I have to go and work hahahaha

I'll answer later.

But I stand by what I state: the Bible is full of things that prove the Catholics changed scripture.

No one has to believe it, but even they have admitted to some of the changes in their encyclopedia's!!
I had no idea about the changed scripture in the canonization of the God inspired word. Again, I have so much to learn. Thanks Rim, have a great day. May you and yours be filled to the rim with the truth of Him.
 

rlm68

Active member
Jul 23, 2018
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I had no idea about the changed scripture in the canonization of the God inspired word. Again, I have so much to learn. Thanks Rim, have a great day. May you and yours be filled to the rim with the truth of Him.

You have a wonderful day!!

look up Matthew 28:19 changed to trinity on google:
You will see where multiple Catholic institutions plus a former POPE admits how the Catholics changed it to the trinity in the 2nd century!!

See you later!!
 

NayborBear

Banned Serpent Seed Heresy
John's gospel says that Jesus was created? Can you quote?
Sure!

John 1
14 And the Word was MADE flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as OF the only BEGOTTEN OF the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Made, equals past tense of "Make?" Created by begetting?
 

CharliRenee

Member
Staff member
Nov 4, 2014
6,693
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I gave you what Elohim means in Hebrew (Singular ONE GOD). So no, the Hebrew/Jews never believed God was 3 person throughout entire Old Testament and Jesus (I AM) creator of all was here from day 1 with Adam.

Obviously, if the Hebrews know God is only ONE PERSON, why DON'T YOU?


See ya later Brothers and sisters in Christ!!
I thought the "im" in Elohim denotes a plurality.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
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Sure!

John 1
14 And the Word was MADE flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as OF the only BEGOTTEN OF the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Made, equals past tense of "Make?" Created by begetting?
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

However, this is about the incarnation. While the Nicene Creed is about the second person of the Trinity as such, i.e. about the Word in John's terms.
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
I had no idea about the changed scripture in the canonization of the God inspired word. Again, I have so much to learn. Thanks Rim, have a great day. May you and yours be filled to the rim with the truth of Him.
One thing to remember,

The greek compaired to english is like apples and oranges. They are two different language, one being complex and the other being wide open.

The reason I believe there are so many english bibles is there are so many views as to ehat the words say. It next to impossible to make a word for word english text. Without error. Because far to many greek words do not transpose to english, and also because the greek is much more complex

One example I like to you us the word love. The greek has 4 words, all complex and all with different meaning, yet no matter which greek word is used, The english is translated with one word, love, so it would be impossible without getting to the origional to know what form of love is being spoken of..

And again, this is but one basic issue.

Most well loved bibles (King Jimmy, New American standard etc) are word for word translation, ie, the interpretors took a gree word and tried to find the english equivelent, if they could not they would use another word which maybe come close. And if all else fails. They would make a new english word (ie, Christos - Christ, Baptizo - Baptise) which again leaves us to attempt to interpret the english word, which basically depends on who you talk to. Instead of the greek word. Then we have tense, The greek has more types of langue such as perfect tense, which is not found in english, thus can not be completely translated into the english.

My point, there is a reason God did not use english to write the origionals. We would be lost..lol!!
 

prove-all

Senior Member
May 16, 2014
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I thought the "im" in Elohim denotes a plurality.
Genesis 1:1: “In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.”
The Hebrew word translated ‘God’ is Elohim—a noun or name,
plural in form, but normally singular in grammatical usage.

It is the same sort of word as family, church, group—one family consisting
of two or more members—one church composed of many members
—one group of several persons.

“And God [Elohim] said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness…”
God said, “Let us”... after our likeness…”—more than one.

“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was [with] God…”
God, who created all things by Jesus Christ”—more than one!

After Adam rebelled against God, notice what Elohim said in Genesis 3:22:
“And the Lord God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us..

Here, God not only says “us,” He says “one of us”! One of the “us”
was God the Father and the other one of the “us” was the Word.
If there was just one deity, why would one deity say to Himself, “ONE of us”?

-
“And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory,
the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.”verse 14:

His life was worth more than all other human beings combined.

“The Word, then, is a Personage who was made flesh—begotten by God,
who through this later begettal became His Father, and the Word became his Son.

Yet at that prehistoric time of the first verse of John 1, the Word was not (yet)
the Son of God. He divested himself of His glory as a spirit divinity to be
begotten as a human person. He was made God’s Son, through being begotten
or sired by God and born of the virgin Mary.

When the Word was “made flesh,” He became the Son! At this point, He was
the begotten Son of God, not yet born. Luke 1:35: “…that holy thing which shall
be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.” When the Word became the Son,
then obviously, God became the Father!

In Hebrews 7:3 it refers to the One who became Jesus Christ as being
“[w]ithout father, without mother, without descent, having neither beginning of
days, nor end of life.…” The Word lived in harmony with God for all eternity.

Neither of them had a beginning. verse 3:
“…but made like unto the Son of God; abideth a priest continually.”
-

When Jesus died, He was in the grave three days and three nights (Matthew 12:40)

And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness,
by the resurrection from the dead:- thus becoming the FIRSTBORN OF ALL CREATION

He was our pioneer , to show us the way, the same way we too can be born like this.
The difference is we are begotten now, an heir to the kingdom, at our ressurection
we will be [Born] or Delivered from bondage of this body and world, a real birth.
 

prove-all

Senior Member
May 16, 2014
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I do not believe there were some evil catholics with the power to change Scriptures
in the whole world, in the first or second century, sorry...
The Comma Johanneum, also called the Johannine Comma or the Heavenly Witnesses,
is a comma (a short clause) found in some manuscripts of the First Epistle of John[1] at 5:7–8.

The scholarly consensus is that that passage is [a Latin corruption] that entered the Greek
manuscript tradition in some subsequent copies.[1] The Comma and the question of its
authenticity have particular bearing on the development of the theological doctrine of the Trinity
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Comma_Johanneum

-someone added scripture to boost there view it seems.

John 8:18 (KJV)
1] I am one that bear witness of myself,
2] and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me.

-why did the Holy Spirit not bear witness in this verse also ?
 

prove-all

Senior Member
May 16, 2014
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the power to change Scriptures
The bible says God gave someone or something power to change time.

Daniel 7:24-25. Here God is talking about the “little horn,” the Catholic Church.

“And he shall speak great words against the most High, and shall wear out the saints of the
most High, and think to change times and laws: and they shall be given into his hand until
a time and times and the dividing of time.”

We know the Catholic church changed the commandments of God.
The Catholic Calendar or [time], how we know today where it comes from?

One dramatic measure of the Catholic religion’s global influence is its control over the definition
and measurement of time itself. Even today, though the presence of Catholicism doesn’t seem as
ubiquitous as it once was, we continue to live by a calendar largely created by the popes of old:

the Gregorian calendar—named after Pope Gregory xiii. That calendar revolves around fixing
the date of Easter in line with the spring equinox, ensuring that the Catholic’s pagan festivals
fall at the right time relative to Earth’s revolution around the sun.

This calendar is based on the Julian calendar, the Roman calendar established in 45 b.c. by Julius
Caesar. He chose the names and lengths of the months that we still use today (except July and
August, which were renamed after Julius and Augustus). But the Julian calendar was later altered
by the Vatican. God actually prophesied that the Catholic Church would change time itself!

What is the Catholic Church’s motive for changing the way mankind measures time?
It is an attempt to destroy—by removing from mankind’s memory—the knowledge
about God’s true holy days and the Sabbath.

The holidays today are man made traditions.
 

Nehemiah6

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Jul 18, 2017
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The scholarly consensus is that that passage is [a Latin corruption] that entered the Greek
manuscript tradition in some subsequent copies.
And the scholarly consensus -- as usual -- is DEAD WRONG.

If you want the truth, read Dean Burgon's dissertation on the Johanine Comma. It is totally authentic Scripture, and the lectionaries of the Eastern Orthodox Church prove that. The majority of textual scholars ignored the lectionaries, but they are a very important part of the manuscript evidence. Burgon, on the other hand, was extremely thorough.
 

rlm68

Active member
Jul 23, 2018
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I thought the "im" in Elohim denotes a plurality.




Meaning of Elohim


In Biblical Hebrew, Elohim is often referred to in the singular despite the -im ending. ... Exodus 3:4, "Elohim called unto him out of the midst of the bush ..."), it behaves like a singular noun in Hebrew grammar, and is then generally understood to denote the ((single God of Israel)).

If you pay close attention to Exodus 3:4...it would not make sense if this verse meant ((the plural God)) called unto him in the midst of the bush. But as ONE PERSON representing God as ELOHIM, this verse makes absolute perfect sense!!