It has been shown ad nauseam how EPh 2:9 (and Rom 4:4,5) refers to works of merit and not obedience to God's will..
Salvation by works is
not obedience to God's will. John 6:40 - For my Father's
will is that everyone who looks to the Son and
believes in him shall have eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day. Any works that you "add" to "believes in Him" would be works of merit if they were the means of our salvation. You JUST DON'T GET THAT. That's why Paul made it crystal clear that we are
saved through faith, not works (Ephesians 2:8,9);
Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to His mercy He saved us.. (Titus 3:5); He saved us and called us with a holy calling,
not according to our works, but according to His own purpose and grace which was given to us in Christ Jesus before time began. That covers
ALL works, including the works that you are trusting in to save you instead of trusting in CHRIST ALONE to save you. Romans Catholics and Mormons also twist Ephesians 2:8,9 in order to "get around" the truth and force these verses to "conform" to their works based false gospel as well.
Paul already made obedient works a necessity in passages as Rom 6:16-18 and would not turn around and contradict himself, and other bible writers, in EPh 2:9. IF Eph 2:9 eliminates ALL works from being saved then that contradicts the very next verse that requires works.
My goodness. You are so confused!
I already explained to you numerous times that Paul was NOT teaching salvation by works in Romans 6:16-18. Paul already said we are
not saved by works/not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to His mercy He saved us/He saved us
not according to our works in (Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9) and would not turn around and contradict himself in Romans 6:16-18. Ephesians 2:9 does eliminate ALL works and Ephesians 2:10 DOES NOT teach that we are saved "by" good works but
FOR good works. YOU JUST DON'T GET IT! *There is a reason for that.
Once again, in regards to Romans 6:16-18 and *please pay close attention this time: There are only two kinds of servants/slaves in this world, in the spiritual sense;
servants/slaves of sin unto death, or
servants/slaves of obedience unto righteousness. When we place our faith exclusively in Christ for salvation/obey the gospel by choosing to believe the gospel by trusting in His finished work of redemption as the all sufficient means of our salvation (Romans 10:16; 1:16), we then
become "servants of obedience unto righteousness." Before they obeyed that form of doctrine by choosing to believe the gospel, they had been slaves to sin. Being slaves of sin is put in the past tense. Paul goes on in Romans 6:18 - "You have been
set free from sin and have
become slaves to righteousness. You don't produce multiple works of righteousness in order to become a slave of righteousness but BECAUSE you are a slave of righteousness. You have it backwards. You also continue to ignore
"servants of obedience unto righteousness" (Romans 6:16) and simply stresses "obedience unto righteousness" as if works of obedience which follow saving faith in Christ are unto righteousness, as if we are saved by works.
In Rom 10:3 Paul shows those Jews were lost for they 'have not submitted unto the righteousness of God"
You says "Of course Paul did not say that"
I agree with Paul that those Jews were lost because they "have not submitted to the righteousness of God." In verse 4, Paul goes on to explain that to "submit to the righteousness of God" =
BELIEVES. Here is what I applied
"of course Paul did not say that" to - *YOUR words here that you
left out this time from post #230 -
"Paul did not say those Jews were saved but then would not submit to God's righteousness. Why did you leave out your words in bold this time from post #230 to make it look like I was disagreeing with Paul? That is not being honest.
So why continue with this when you will not even accept what Paul DID actually say?
I DO accept what Paul actually DID say. It's you who DOES NOT agree so you ADD your own preconceived ideas to the text. Paul clearly said - Romans 10:3 For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and seeking to establish their own righteousness,
have not submitted to the righteousness of God. 4 For
Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who
BELIEVES. Paul clearly explained that submitted to the righteousness of God =
BELIEVES. In Philippians 3:9, Paul clearly said
..the righteousness which is of God by
FAITH. *NOT WORKS.
When Paul say they would not submit to God's righteousness you say "show me the word "work" or works" in Rom 10:3"
Again, you failed to show me the word "work" or "works" in Romans 10:3. Paul said
BELIEVES not works.
Again more denial of reality of what the word submit means.
Paul clearly explained in context that these Jews did not believe in Christ for salvation so they did not submit to the righteousness of God through believing in Him/faith, but instead they were seeking to establish their own righteousness before God on the basis of their works, JUST AS YOU ARE. I know what the word submit means and the context shows that "submit to the righteousness of God" =
BELIEVES. Paul did not say submit to salvation by works. That would be seeking to establish your OWN righteousness.
Opposite of BELIEVES.
It was also shown Peter said one WORKS God's righteousness to be accepted Acts 10:35 which you also deny.
No, Peter did not say one works God's righteousness as a lost unbeliever in order "to be" accepted. Peter said in every nation whoever fears Him and
works righteousness/does what is right (descriptive of those who are saved, not lost)
is accepted by Him/is welcome to Him. Again,Peter is not talking about works of righteousness as being the means of salvation here. Paul made it crystal clear that we are
not saved by works of righteousness in Titus 3:5. Rather, the question here is whether God's favor is made available to Jews only (partiality - vs. 34) or is now available to Gentiles also (those "in every nation") who fear Him and work righteousness/does what is right (descriptive of Jewish and Gentile Christians). You have closed your eyes to the truth and I see that you avoided answering my questions in post #239. Why do you continue to avoid answering my questions?
(and Peter was speaking to those that were lost, he did NOT say "since God has accepted you because of your faith only you can now start working righteousness)
Peter did not say to them, "start working righteousness and then God will save you based on your works." Peter is simply explaining that God's favor is not made available to Jews only (partiality - vs. 34) but is now available to Gentiles also (those "in every nation") who fear Him and work righteousness/does what is right (descriptive of Jewish and Gentile Christians). Peter leads right up to the message of how one is saved in Acts 10:43 - "To Him all the prophets witness that, through His name,
whoever believes in Him will receive remission of sins."
You're denying the plain and obvious so why should I continue with this?
It's actually YOU who is denying the plain and obvious truth because of your UNBELIEF so why should I continue with this?