The Error of KJV-Onlyism

[posthuman]

That's false. The gifts and callings of God are without repentance.

He put me in a physical body and I'll always have a physical body.

if I go in the rapture my body will immediately be changed to a glorified body as I go up.

If I croak before the rapture, I'll be in the presence of the Lord while my body is in the grave and at the rapture I will return with Him being reunited with my body and it will be changed to a glorified body.

You do what you want, but I'm a joint heir with Christ Jesus so I will have a glorified physical body just like He has now!

Christ was bodily born into the world, bodily crucified, bodily resurrected, bodily ascended, and will bodily return.

He didn't need to have His body transformed in order to walk on water, to walk through crowds of people trying to grab Him, or to be transfigured.

 

[John146]

The word "easter" refers to pagan beliefs

According to the New Unger’s Bible Dictionary: The word Easter is of Saxon origin, Eastra, the goddess of spring

Passover has nothing to do with pagan beliefs so the word Passover should be translated as Passover

I‘m not sure The New Unger‘s Bible dictionary is a reliable source. Things that are different are not the same, Easter vs Eastra. That dog won’t hunt.

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

Passover week (including the days of unleavened bread and firstfruits) or Passover day?

Christ gave Himself on the day of Passover, and rose on the day of Firstfruits.

if easter is supposedly a synonym, it should wither be a week, not a single day, or it should be the day of the crucifixion, not the resurrection.

in either case it's not a synonym, it's a rejection of the Levitical feast days in favor of a man-made day. and i have no issue with celebrating foe example Christmas, even though the day is probably far wrong for when Christ was born, but it doesn't make it legitimate to translate Pascha as a purely man-made holiday in the scripture. it's simply not an accurate representation of what the scripture says in its original language - you may as well go through the OT and replace Yom Kippur with arbor day lol

I believe the Passover begins on the 14th and it continues for 7 days (ending on the 21st) (See pic below). The first day of Passover is also called the feast of unleavened bread. This all plays an important part in our understanding on many things in the Bible properly. One example is our understanding the Chronology of the Passion Week.

To see an explanation from a Jewish Christian (Messianic) on the the Passover, see here:

http://www.ironsharpeningiron.com/passoverisafeasthenson.htm
(Note: Please keep in mind I do not agree with everything they say).

It’s a seven day Passover:
(with sunset or evening beginning a new calendar day).



Here is my Chronology of the Passion Week (if it sounds like your cup of tea):

https://www.christianforums.com/threads/my-new-chronology-on-the-passion-week.8019674/

I believe Acts 12:4 refers to the Jewish Passover when it uses the English word “Easter” and it is just a synonym (another word) for Passover. Yes, it obscures meaning, and even the opponent against Will Kinney in the KJV debate last night agrees that this is what this verse is saying. Although Will’s opponent in the KJV video debate does not believe in a perfect Bible and he believes the KJV has errors in it. As you know, I am one of those crazy believers who actually believes in double inspiration in the King James Bible and it is the perfect, and error free word of God. I will believe that to my grave no matter what. I know too much. I have 101 Reasons for the KJV as the Pure Word of God for today.

 

[John146]

As you know, I believe the word “Easter” is a synonym for “Passover.”
It’s a reference to the Jewish Passover.
So obviously no problem in the KJV here.

Oh, and yes, I agree that Jesus is our Passover Lamb. But if the word “Easter” in Acts 12:4 is a reference to the Jewish Passover, IN ADDITION to it being a word that is now changed in meaning for Christians after the cross, then we should see this change also in 1 Corinthians 5:7 when Paul speaks of our Passover Lamb. Meaning, Paul should say that Jesus is our “Easter” Lamb if the word “Passover” has changed to “Easter” after the resurrection if Acts 12:4 is conveying this truth. I know. I get it. We want to always have an answer or not make it appear like the KJV may be difficult to understand at times. But truth is truth. Sometimes an answer is not always so easily available. The important thing is we do have a pure Word of God that we can hold in our hands and they don’t. The promises of God demand that we have a perfect book and this is shown to be true ten thousand times over with the KJV.

Praise be unto the Lord Jesus for His perfect Word He has given us this day.

That‘s the connection my friend, the Corinthian verse! Easter is defined in that verse. Since the Passover has been fulfilled, no need to bring up the OT Passover.

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

Christ was bodily born into the world, bodily crucified, bodily resurrected, bodily ascended, and will bodily return.

He didn't need to have His body transformed in order to walk on water, to walk through crowds of people trying to grab Him, or to be transfigured.

Amen. I 100% agree with you. This whole newly changed glorified body fable is not really found in the Scriptures.
At least it is not something I have seen clearly spelled out in the Scriptures.

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

That‘s the connection my friend, the Corinthian verse! Easter is defined in that verse. Since the Passover has been fulfilled, no need to bring up the OT Passover.

But what about Hebrews 11:28? It also uses the word “passover” in the New Covenant Scriptures.
I mean, I get it. I also would like to find a deeper meaning here, but I am not sure this is it, my brother.
I truly do hope to pray and find that meaning in Acts 12:4. But if it is not revealed, I am still okay. Synonyms are common even in our every day language and there is no real reason why we may use one but to show variety in our wording. But I will pray on it, though. God has answered me before on challenging points in Scripture many times.

But again, I do appreciate your desire and passion to defend the Word.

May Jesus Christ get all the glory.

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

"they" meaning only english-speakers, only 1600 years after the scripture was actually written...

Zephaniah 3:9​

For then I will restore to the peoples a pure language, that they all may call on the name of the LORD, to serve Him with one accord.​

​

is this prophesying elizabethton english?
or hebrew?
or a different, pre-babel language?

Yes, I brought this verse up in this thread already. But you can take a sigh of relief in the fact that I do NOT believe the pure language in Zephaniah 3:9 is referring to 1600s English.

I believe the pure language in Zephaniah 3:9 is an entirely new pure language that has never existed on Earth before. When we look at all the types or themes in Scripture of the old and the new, God likes to bring in new things from out of the old. The earth we are on is old and it will one day pass away to give way to a new Earth.

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

Sure it is! It's documented history about eastra, the goddess of spring

You can use the word easter all you'd like.

I'm not going to use easter. I'll use the word passover which originated in the old testament and since Jesus is our passover, it fits in with what the Lord is telling us in His Word.

Obviously in the world William Tyndale existed, he did not have a problem in using Easter interchangeably with Passover.
William Tyndale invented the word “Passover” and this is an agreed upon fact in both the KJV believer side, and the Modern Scholarship side. Yes, there are those like you who disagree, but you don’t seem to be any kind of real researcher or truth seeker. But I do pray that changes of course.

Well, the Lord can laugh at false doctrine and I can too!
View attachment 261417

Chapter and verse please. Also, what do you do with all those other verses I posted to you?
Do you just cut them out of your Bible and flush them down the toilet?

Spiritual body type resurrection (like the body of angels).

That's false. The gifts and callings of God are without repentance.

Would you say that a wife given to you by the LORD is a gift?
Yet, will they always be your wife?
Would you not say that the creation (i.e., the Earth) we live upon is a gift?
Are you not aware of Scripture that it says that this Earth will pass away and that there will be a New Earth?
In other words, read the context. Romans 11 is in reference to the Jews in that the gift of salvation is given without repentance. The gifts would have been the early church miraculous sign gifts (Which we do not see in the church today).

He put me in a physical body and I'll always have a physical body.

if I go in the rapture my body will immediately be changed to a glorified body as I go up.

If I croak before the rapture, I'll be in the presence of the Lord while my body is in the grave and at the rapture I will return with Him being reunited with my body and it will be changed to a glorified body.

You do what you want, but I'm a joint heir with Christ Jesus so I will have a glorified physical body just like He has now! View attachment 261418

Scripture verses to back up your claims.

 

[posthuman]

That‘s the connection my friend, the Corinthian verse! Easter is defined in that verse. Since the Passover has been fulfilled, no need to bring up the OT Passover.

Hmm would it be fair to say that since the Messiah has been fulfilled there's no reason to bring up the OT Messiah? since the testimony of His resurrection has been fulfilled, there's no reason to bring up His resurrection?

 

[posthuman]

I believe the pure language in Zephaniah 3:9 is an entirely new pure language that has never existed on Earth before. When we look at all the types or themes in Scripture of the old and the new, God likes to bring in new things from out of the old. The earth we are on is old and it will one day pass away to give way to a new Earth.

how can He say "restore" if the language is new?

How can the kjv be perfect if the scripture categorically calls its language impure? will the scripture be later even more perfect than perfect?

i would think it's clear from this text that the though the Word of God is perfect, our language is not.

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

how can He say "restore" if the language is new?

How can the kjv be perfect if the scripture categorically calls its language impure? will the scripture be later even more perfect than perfect?

i would think it's clear from this text that the though the Word of God is perfect, our language is not.

It says that He will turn to the people a pure language. This archaic word “turn” does mean return. But it does not mean it is going to be the same exact pure language that once existed. It can be an entirely new pure language and still not be a contradiction of such a statement. It would merely be by way of comparison of returning back to a pure language in the fact that it is a parallel or comparison to the previous pure language. It says “a pure language” and not “the pure language.” Meaning, it is not the same exact pure language. If that idea was to be conveyed clearly, it would say, “then will I turn to the people the same pure language as it once existed of old.” But it doesn’t say that, my friend.

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

i would think it's clear from this text that the though the Word of God is perfect, our language is not.

Zephaniah 3 is a chapter I do need to study more in prayer and by comparing Scripture with Scripture.
I would even consider 1600s English as being on the table, although I do not currently believe this interpretation is the case today.

 

[John146]

But what about Hebrews 11:28? It also uses the word “passover” in the New Covenant Scriptures.
I mean, I get it. I also would like to find a deeper meaning here, but I am not sure this is it, my brother.
I truly do hope to pray and find that meaning in Acts 12:4. But if it is not revealed, I am still okay. Synonyms are common even in our every day language and there is no real reason why we may use one but to show variety in our wording. But I will pray on it, though. God has answered me before on challenging points in Scripture many times.

But again, I do appreciate your desire and passion to defend the Word.

May Jesus Christ get all the glory.

Hebrews 11 is a reference to the OT Passover. Synonyms are common, Easter and Christ our Passover Lamb.😉

 

[John146]

Hmm would it be fair to say that since the Messiah has been fulfilled there's no reason to bring up the OT Messiah? since the testimony of His resurrection has been fulfilled, there's no reason to bring up His resurrection?

Apples and oranges my friend

 

[Stan_the_Man]

I‘m not sure The New Unger‘s Bible dictionary is a reliable source

Well, a lot of other sources say the same thing.

Point being, I'm not going to be associating with the pagan observance of easter, but I will celebrate Passover since this is what the Lord calls it. He doesn't associate with pagan goddesses ether!

Since the Passover has been fulfilled, no need to bring up the OT Passover

In the NT, Jesus Christ is out Passover.

Obviously in the world William Tyndale existed, he did not have a problem in using Easter interchangeably with Passover.

He did so in error.

Maybe he enjoyed celebrating the pagan goddess garbage. Some of these guys back then were freaks!

 

[posthuman]

Apples and oranges my friend

imo easter and firstfruits are apples and oranges.

easter is set by the vernal equinox
firstfruits by the moon
easter has no relationship to the 7 feast days
firstfruits is one of them
easter has no record of existing as a word until the 1400's
firstfruits was instituted thousands of years before Christ appeared by God Himself

 

[posthuman]

That‘s the connection my friend, the Corinthian verse! Easter is defined in that verse. Since the Passover has been fulfilled, no need to bring up the OT Passover.

if there's no need to mention what Christ fulfilled why does the Bible do so over and over and over?

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

Hebrews 11 is a reference to the OT Passover. Synonyms are common, Easter and Christ our Passover Lamb.😉

The same truth is expressed in Acts 12:4. It is also a reference to the OT Passover. It is the only way it works with the context. Herod would not care about the Christian Passover. After all, when Herod killed James he had seen that it pleased the Jews, and therefore this is why he proceeded further to take Peter. Some of my fellow KJB advocates will say that it had a double meaning here in Acts 12:4 (i.e., a symbolic one), but if that is the case, then all words should have been changed to Easter in the New Testament to reflect that. I just see it as a synonym currently like how a person might say kitty and feline in the same paragraph to both refer to a cat. Is there a deeper spiritual meaning? I am sure there is knowing the amazing GOD we serve (Proverbs 25:2).

God has revealed treasures to me in Scripture that others just mock and or cannot see.

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

Well, a lot of other sources say the same thing.

Point being, I'm not going to be associating with the pagan observance of easter, but I will celebrate Passover since this is what the Lord calls it. He doesn't associate with pagan goddesses ether! View attachment 261425






In the NT, Jesus Christ is out Passover.







He did so in error.

Maybe he enjoyed celebrating the pagan goddess garbage. Some of these guys back then were freaks!

Again, you are not fact-checking anything. You are just going off your own thoughts.
You just make assumptions about people. That is not seeking after the truth, but it is making your own reality the way you want to see thing.

 

[Bible_Highlighter]

Again, you are not fact-checking anything. You are just going off your own thoughts.
You just make assumptions about people. That is not seeking after the truth, but it is making your own reality the way you want to see thing.

Meant to say…. ”see things,“ and NOT thing.