The Error of KJV-Onlyism
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op: error of KJV only?
I believe God Gave me a choice in 1 Corinthians 14:33 AV:
"For God Is not the author of confusion..."
[ over 100 Constantly ↑ changing ↑ / supposedly "easier-to-read/understand" versions? ]
"...But [ God Is THE Author ] of Peace..."
(With One Consistent Pure/Preserved/Inspired/
Profitable/Understandable Word Of Truth! )
Now, What Does God Want me to do With It? =
Handling The Precious Word Of Life!
I Must 'choose' Carefully, eh?
Amen.
I believe God Gave me a choice in 1 Corinthians 14:33 AV:
"For God Is not the author of confusion..."
[ over 100 Constantly ↑ changing ↑ / supposedly "easier-to-read/understand" versions? ]
"...But [ God Is THE Author ] of Peace..."
(With One Consistent Pure/Preserved/Inspired/
Profitable/Understandable Word Of Truth! )
Now, What Does God Want me to do With It? =
Handling The Precious Word Of Life!
I Must 'choose' Carefully, eh?
Amen.
Vaticanus and Sinaiticus have corrections all over them. In the Vaticanus: One scribe says to another, “Fool and knave, keep the old reading.” There are over 3,000 differences in the gospels alone between these two manuscripts. Modern Bibles do not even agree with each other, and they teach false doctrines, and get many facts wrong. We can even show how when one verse is destroyed in Modern Bibles, it creates a huge ripple effect of problems among other cross references. Meaning, the cross references connection is broken many times. Modern scholars ignore history when it does not fit their narrative. There is a ton of new information in defense of 1 John 5:7 in history, but the scholars simply don’t care.
These are simply the facts.
These are simply the facts.
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Yesterday, I watched a debate between Jeff Riddle and James White on Ephesians 3:9.
James White thinks it should be “the plan of the mystery“ instead of “the fellowship of the mystery.”
I am surprised that neither of these debaters brought up Colossians 1:26-27.
Colossians 1:26-27
26 "Even the mystery which hath been hid from ages and from generations, but now is made manifest to his saints:
27 To whom God would make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles; which is Christ in you, the hope of glory:"
The fellowship of the mystery is.... Christ in you, who is our hope of glory.
If Christ is in a person, they have fellowship with Him.
So ”Christ in you” is the “fellowship of the mystery” being spoken about in Ephesians 3:9.
In short, the Modern scholars are not aware of all of the Scriptural cross references.
They don't know their Bible, and so they make ridiculous changes that is not supported by the whole counsel of God's Word.
James White thinks it should be “the plan of the mystery“ instead of “the fellowship of the mystery.”
I am surprised that neither of these debaters brought up Colossians 1:26-27.
Colossians 1:26-27
26 "Even the mystery which hath been hid from ages and from generations, but now is made manifest to his saints:
27 To whom God would make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles; which is Christ in you, the hope of glory:"
The fellowship of the mystery is.... Christ in you, who is our hope of glory.
If Christ is in a person, they have fellowship with Him.
So ”Christ in you” is the “fellowship of the mystery” being spoken about in Ephesians 3:9.
In short, the Modern scholars are not aware of all of the Scriptural cross references.
They don't know their Bible, and so they make ridiculous changes that is not supported by the whole counsel of God's Word.
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No examples necessary; it's common knowledge. Anyone who knows how to use Google can look it up and find it easily. You have no good explanation so you're just trying to deflect.
According to KJVO, God has preserved His word without one jot or tittle being changed. So, my question is: Which KJV edition is the perfectly preserved word? You may have your own answer to this question; however, my point is simply that the KJVO argument that modern translations don't agree with each other is weak and hypocritical because neither do the KJV editions.
According to KJVO, God has preserved His word without one jot or tittle being changed. So, my question is: Which KJV edition is the perfectly preserved word? You may have your own answer to this question; however, my point is simply that the KJVO argument that modern translations don't agree with each other is weak and hypocritical because neither do the KJV editions.
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The "Johannine Comma" is a short clause found in 1 John 5:7–8.
Erasmus omitted the text of the Johannine Comma from his first and second editions of the Greek-Latin New Testament (the Novum Instrumentum omne) because it was not in his Greek manuscripts. He added the text to his Novum Testamentum omne in 1522 after being accused of reviving Arianism and after he was informed of a Greek manuscript that contained the verse,[5] although he expressed doubt as to its authenticity in his Annotations.[6][7]
Many subsequent early printed editions of the Bible include it, such as the Coverdale Bible (1535), the Geneva Bible (1560), the Douay-Rheims Bible (1610), and the King James Bible (1611). Later editions based on the Textus Receptus, such as Robert Young's Literal Translation (1862) and the New King James Version (1979), include the verse. In the 1500s it was not always included in Latin New Testament editions, though it was in the Sixto-Clementine Vulgate (1592).
Wikipedia
Erasmus omitted the text of the Johannine Comma from his first and second editions of the Greek-Latin New Testament (the Novum Instrumentum omne) because it was not in his Greek manuscripts. He added the text to his Novum Testamentum omne in 1522 after being accused of reviving Arianism and after he was informed of a Greek manuscript that contained the verse,[5] although he expressed doubt as to its authenticity in his Annotations.[6][7]
Many subsequent early printed editions of the Bible include it, such as the Coverdale Bible (1535), the Geneva Bible (1560), the Douay-Rheims Bible (1610), and the King James Bible (1611). Later editions based on the Textus Receptus, such as Robert Young's Literal Translation (1862) and the New King James Version (1979), include the verse. In the 1500s it was not always included in Latin New Testament editions, though it was in the Sixto-Clementine Vulgate (1592).
Wikipedia
I trust you are aware that no modern version is completely reliable (including this one).
Holman CSB
And most certainly, the mystery of godliness is great: He was manifested in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen by angels, preached among the Gentiles, believed on in the world, taken up in glory. (1 Tim 3:16)
Westcott and Hort / [NA27 variants]
καὶ ὁμολογουμένως μέγα ἐστὶν τὸ τῆς εὐσεβείας μυστήριον· Ὃς ἐφανερώθη ἐν σαρκί, ἐδικαιώθη ἐν πνεύματι, ὤφθη ἀγγέλοις, ἐκηρύχθη ἐν ἔθνεσιν, ἐπιστεύθη ἐν κόσμῳ, ἀνελήμφθη ἐν δόξῃ.
KJB
And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.
Stephanus Textus Receptus 1550
καὶ ὁμολογουμένως μέγα ἐστὶν τὸ τῆς εὐσεβείας μυστήριον· Θεὸς ἐφανερώθη ἐν σαρκί ἐδικαιώθη ἐν πνεύματι ὤφθη ἀγγέλοις ἐκηρύχθη ἐν ἔθνεσιν ἐπιστεύθη ἐν κόσμῳ ἀνελήφθη ἐν δόξῃ
That word in the Received Text and corresponding texts is THEOS. This is important since "he" can mean anyone including Christ. The naysayers love to show that Jesus is not God. That the reason "he" (which is actually "who" in Greek) is there is because the abbreviation for God in the Greek very closely resembles "who". However, every manuscripts has "THEOS" other than the ones supporting Westcott and Hort.
Holman CSB
And most certainly, the mystery of godliness is great: He was manifested in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen by angels, preached among the Gentiles, believed on in the world, taken up in glory. (1 Tim 3:16)
Westcott and Hort / [NA27 variants]
καὶ ὁμολογουμένως μέγα ἐστὶν τὸ τῆς εὐσεβείας μυστήριον· Ὃς ἐφανερώθη ἐν σαρκί, ἐδικαιώθη ἐν πνεύματι, ὤφθη ἀγγέλοις, ἐκηρύχθη ἐν ἔθνεσιν, ἐπιστεύθη ἐν κόσμῳ, ἀνελήμφθη ἐν δόξῃ.
KJB
And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.
Stephanus Textus Receptus 1550
καὶ ὁμολογουμένως μέγα ἐστὶν τὸ τῆς εὐσεβείας μυστήριον· Θεὸς ἐφανερώθη ἐν σαρκί ἐδικαιώθη ἐν πνεύματι ὤφθη ἀγγέλοις ἐκηρύχθη ἐν ἔθνεσιν ἐπιστεύθη ἐν κόσμῳ ἀνελήφθη ἐν δόξῃ
That word in the Received Text and corresponding texts is THEOS. This is important since "he" can mean anyone including Christ. The naysayers love to show that Jesus is not God. That the reason "he" (which is actually "who" in Greek) is there is because the abbreviation for God in the Greek very closely resembles "who". However, every manuscripts has "THEOS" other than the ones supporting Westcott and Hort.
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