I agree that God (father, Son & Holy Spirit) described their relationship with Israel as a `husband,` master, and Israel as a wife. 9Isa. 54)
Not seeing John saying that he was not the bride. (John 1: 29, your reference)
““He who has the bride is the bridegroom; but the friend of the bridegroom, who stands and hears him,
rejoices greatly because of the bridegroom’s voice. So this joy of mine has been made full.” (John 3:29)
rejoices greatly because of the bridegroom’s voice. So this joy of mine has been made full.” (John 3:29)
In vs 26, John the Baptist's followers were pointing out how Jesus was getting all the attraction now. Either they were upset at this or they thought John might be. But it didn't bother John at all because John's purpose was not to maintain this level of attraction, Jesus was. John's task was to prepare the world for the coming of Messiah, the “Groom.” Like a relay race, John was handing the baton (his followers) to Jesus. John's joy was full because Jesus' ministry was gaining speed (vs 30) and it was His time to take the spotlight. In vs 29, John says there is a bride, a Bridegroom, and a friend of the bridegroom...he identifies himself as the "friend of the bridegroom" by the association of his own joy.
Paul was speaking in reference to Christ and His church, His Body, that how He loved His Body, is how a husband should love His own body, his wife.
“But the one who joins himself to the Lord is one spirit with Him.” (1 Corinthians 6:17)
The Church is betrothed to Christ (2 Cor 11:2).
The Gk. word is `it` NOT `her. And referring back to the 4 chapters that Paul described the New Man.
ἀνήρ (aner) is a biological "man"
γυνή (gune) is a biological "woman"
ἄνθρωπος (anthropos) is "person(s)/human(s)"...
...(translated as "man" in many cases in the sense of "mankind"...e.g. "man shall not live by bread alone"(Lk 4:4)
So referencing the "New Man" ἄνθρωπος of Eph 2 is not evidence against the notion of a feminine connotation for the Church in chapter 5.
That being said,
You may not be aware of the difference between the Greek word for "it" and "her".
αὐτός (autos) is "him", "it" or "her" depending on context.
αὐτὴν (autan) is more specific.... it means "her" because it is conjugated as the feminine form AND it is a personal pronoun.
The `wife` had to make herself ready through righteous acts, (Rev. 19: 7 & 8) We, the Body of Christ are righteous through Christ, not our righteous acts.
Concerning the fine linen Rev 19:8; Eph 5:26, are you a KJV onlyist?
Recap:
-God was married to Israel before the Church was born (Isa 54:5).
-The Church is currently betrothed to Christ (2 Cor 11:2)
-John the Baptist identifies himself as the friend of the Groom, rather than the bride (John 3:29).
-The mystery of the two becoming one is what Paul speaks of in reference to Christ and the Church (Eph 5:31-32).
-The Church has a feminine connotation because of how αὐτὴν (auten) is conjugated (Eph 5:26).