If Lucifer comes from a mistake on the Septuagint then what relevancy does that have with the KJV if we are against Septuagint and use the Hebrew & Aramaic? I pasted the verses that all mentioned hell and gave the clear interpretation what translation do i need to give it if is already in English? The reason being is cus the KJV is the preserved word of God also for this very reason is why translation is important bc then bibles start teaching different things and people act like if it doesnt matter which bible to use.
I am not sure how it got into the KJV. Perhaps the king just liked the sound of it. You do know that if there was ever a dispute over any translation point it was brought to the king. The ONLY answer that the translators would ever give to the king was, "Yes your Majesty." End of discussion.
There is nothing pure or preserved by the KJV. If this is the only correct version than man had no "pure" or correct version for 1600 years. A long time to go without the precious Spirit of God.
You pasted a story about King Tyre, not Lucifer.
The word "lucifer" is only in the Bible once. Did you look it up in the Tanakh?