So your view is that 1 John 2:2 is speaking of sufficiency and not application?
I won't argue about sufficiency. The Lord is absolutely sufficient in all ways.
But I just can't wrap my mind around the Lord being the propitiation for the whole world yet some don't get propitiated for.
It would make more sense (in my head) to say only the world of believers receive this propitiation since unbelievers in fact don't receive this propitiation.
Otherwise, you are inadvertently stating an impossibility. A person who has had their sins atoned for by Christ dying in their sins. Will not compute. The equation won't balance. It has to simplify down to (Die in sins = not atoned for)
That is the simplicity that I try to show. I don't think it is against what scripture says. It just doesn't describe the sufficiency of what God does. Which we can't really do anyway. Or what we would say would be insufficient...