The Wet Paint Principle (Freedom from sin)

[justbyfaith]

we are waiting for the redemption of our bodies, in the resurrection. see Romans 8:23 & surrounding text.

Compare Romans 8:23 with Galatians 4:5-7. And see also Hebrews 9:13-14, 1 Thessalonians 5:23, 1 John 3:2-3, Ephesians 5:30-32.

While sin is not eradicated, it can be rendered dead (Romans 6:6, Galatians 5:24, Romans 7:8) when a person is sanctified; so that it no longer has any say over his behaviour (Romans 6:14, Romans 8:12).

 

[posthuman]

see 1 John 3:4

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Πᾶς ὁ ποιῶν τὴν ἁμαρτίαν​

everyone committing sin​

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καὶ τὴν ἀνομίαν ποιεῖ,​

also lawlessness commits​

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καὶ ἡ ἁμαρτία ἐστὶν ἡ ἀνομία.​

and sin is lawlessness​

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clearly, if you say you have no law, you are lawless and practicing sin.
just as clearly as 1 John 1:8-10 says you are a liar and The Truth is not in you if you say you are sinless.
however we who are in Him, are under the Law of Christ -- and we confess our sin, which He is faithful to forgive.
and if you deny your sin, and cover your iniquity, what does He do?
search it out.


in re: 1 John 3:4, kjv happens to have translated this very poorly, inserting interpretation that isn't faithful to the actual text.
compare Romans 2:23 -- you who boast in the Law, do you dishonor God by transgression of the Law?

παραβάσεως τοῦ νόμου​

transgression of the Law​

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look at 1 John 3:4 as it was actually written - not in kjv, which was written by men, but in Greek, as the Holy Spirit gave it.
that phrase παραβάσεως τοῦ νόμου is not present in it.

 

[posthuman]

You have misrepresented me here.

**ahem**

I cannot sin because I am not under the law

your words.
poorly chosen words, IMO.
false words, per scripture.

 

[justbyfaith]

I cannot sin because I am not under the law,

((pure gnosticism, exactly what John wrote his little epistles to refute))

So, you are saying that Paul was a gnostic writer.

Because he wrote, in Romans 4:15, that where there is no law there is no transgression.

And John wrote, in 1 John 3:4, that sin is the transgression of the law.

Now, if I am not under the law (Romans 6:14) and am dead to the law (Romans 7:4, Galatians 2:19) and am delivered from the law (Romans 7:6)...see also Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14, Hebrews 7:18-19, and Galatians 5:18...then it is as if there is no law to me.

This is as concerning condemnation, not obedience.

Because as a believer in Christ, when the Father looks down on me, He see the blood and imputed righteousness of Jesus Christ.

He sees me as perfect (see also Song of Solomon 4:7).

Therefore, in the Father's eyes, how does the law identify me as a sinner?

 

[posthuman]

Because he wrote, in Romans 4:15, that where there is no law there is no transgression.

you are not reading my posts.
you are angry in your vanity, and acting a fool.
go away for 2 hours, then come back and read what i said from the beginning, slowly.

transgression of a law is not the only kind of sin.

 

[justbyfaith]

**ahem**





your words.
poorly chosen words, IMO.
false words, per scripture.

Words taken out of the context of everything else that I wrote.

And scripture says that whosoever is born of God cannot sin; and that as believers in Christ we are not under the law.

So, show the scripture that refutes the "because" in that statement.

 

[justbyfaith]

you are not reading my posts.
you are angry in your vanity, and acting a fool.
go away for 2 hours, then come back and read what i said from the beginning, slowly.

transgression of a law is not the only kind of sin.

However, in the premise of the OP, that is the definition of sin that is being used.

 

[justbyfaith]

look at 1 John 3:4 as it was actually written - not in kjv, which was written by men, but in Greek, as the Holy Spirit gave it.

I hold that God is both Omnipotent and sovereign and loving;

And that therefore He has preserved His unadulterated message in the kjv.

The "educated" scribes and Pharisees rejected Jesus; while the common people heard Him gladly.

Therefore, I contend that God has not limited His unadulterated message to "educated" amateur Greek and Hebrew scholars;

But that He has given it to the common people in their own language.

 

[justbyfaith]

Words taken out of the context of everything else that I wrote.

And scripture says that whosoever is born of God cannot sin; and that as believers in Christ we are not under the law.

So, show the scripture that refutes the "because" in that statement.

I have shown scripture that affirms it.

signed,
justbyfaith

 

[justbyfaith]

you are angry in your vanity, and acting a fool.

You are in danger of hell fire (Matthew 5:22).

 

[justbyfaith]

we are waiting for the redemption of our bodies, in the resurrection. see Romans 8:23 & surrounding text.

Also, compare Romans 8:24-25 to Hebrews 11:1.

 

[justbyfaith]

clearly, if you say you have no law, you are lawless and practicing sin.

My full teaching on that is that we are under the law to Christ (1 Corinthians 9:21) as concerning obedience.

 

[justbyfaith]

I would point out, also, that when it is written that whatsoever is not of faith is sin (Romans 14:23), that this definition does not exclude the definition for sin that is given in 1 John 3:4; that "sin is the transgression of the law".

I would say that if we do anything that is not of faith (sin), we are going to be transgressing the law in some way, shape, or form.

1Jo 3:4, Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.

 

[justbyfaith]

and if you deny your sin, and cover your iniquity, what does He do?
search it out.

I would suggest that you read the whole document before you make your judgment.

 

[justbyfaith]

just as clearly as 1 John 1:8-10 says you are a liar and The Truth is not in you if you say you are sinless.

And of course, my teaching is not that we are sinless, but that indwelling sin is rendered dead (Romans 6:6, Galatians 5:24, Romans 7:8) so that it no longer has any say over our behaviour (Romans 6:14, Romans 8:12 (NLT))

 

[justbyfaith]

however we who are in Him, are under the Law of Christ

We are under the law to Christ (1 Corinthians 9:21 (kjv), Matthew 5:17-20).

 

[justbyfaith]

παραβάσεως τοῦ νόμουtransgression of the Lawlook at 1 John 3:4 as it was actually written - not in kjv, which was written by men, but in Greek, as the Holy Spirit gave it.
that phrase παραβάσεως τοῦ νόμου is not present in it.

I'm sorry but I do not know how to read Greek, and am not willing to take your word for what the scriptures REALLY MEAN, because you are claiming authority from the original languages.

That would provide for a cult-like mentality in which you, the amateur Greek or Hebrew scholar, are the cult-leader.

 

[Diakonos]

just because someone mentions chapter and verse numbers doesn't make their position 'scriptural'
for example, the OP is essentially carnal gnosticism

What I meant by "full of Scripture" was "full of Scripture (in context)". Obviously, I know that Scripture alone doesn't justify any point. But see this as woven together well and mostly sound (verses are in context).

 

[justbyfaith]

but do we not have such a law? in John 13:34 our Lord commands us to love one another even as He loves us. so anything that is not done in love, no - greater still! anything not done in love as He loves, is sin.

This is even told to you later in the document.

 

[justbyfaith]

so you see Victor, we are not "sinlessly perfect"

I do not claim that we are "sinlessly perfect".

I do not believe that we become sinless (1 John 1:8); while we can be perfected in Christ (Hebrews 10:14 (kjv)).

And Victor is my pen name.