Thief in the Night-- Pretrib or Second Coming?

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GaryA

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The types, patterns, symbols, macro-codes and explicit proclamation of the pre-trib rapture is literally all over the place in the bible.
Both OT and NT. I mean its just everywhere man.
Are you going to show all of us an "explicit proclamation of the pre-trib rapture" in the Bible - or, are you just "all talk"...? :cautious:
 

GaryA

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I think you missed the point......Jesus in Matt 24:29-31 is addressing ISRAEL. Clearly.

Matt 24:15 makes it perfecty clear that in these passages, Jesus is proclaiming and expounding upon the future fulfillment of the Daniel chapter 9 prophecy......given to ISRAEL. I mean it just can't be any more clear than that.
BZZZZZZZZZZT! Wrong.

I believe you are the one who has "missed it"... :(

:rolleyes:
 

GaryA

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The 70th week of which Jesus expounds upon in Matt 24.
The 70th week of Daniel came to pass right after the 69th week (no gap) and ended in 34 A.D.

I cannot understand how people can possibly miss the obvious fact that the 70th week of Daniel = 7 yr tribulation = Matt 24.
Because, it is not a fact - only in the minds of pretrib folks - who do not have a proper understanding of Daniel 9.
 

Jackson123

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No, verse 2 is not speaking of Paul's statement (from v.1) in greater detail.

Verse 2 is Paul spelling out a false claim (not to be believed) purporting "that the day of the Lord is present / is already here [perfect indicative]". It wasn't "present". But that is speaking of the judgment portion OF the overall very lengthy day of the Lord time-period, aka what we commonly call the 7-yr Tribulation Period.

It wasn't "present" and Paul goes on to reiterate the sequence 3x... the sequence between our Rapture in the air event and the time-period called "the day of the Lord" that the lie / false claim in v.2 is about--claiming it "is present / already here"--which is NOT about "rapture" nor about His "second coming".



IOW, their "false claim" (v.2) was not about Paul's verse 1 Rapture subject;

Paul is the one bringing that Verse 1 Subject to bear on the issue of the false claim, that is, its relation time-wise / sequence-wise to the other.





He's saying that, in order for such a claim to be true ("that the day of the Lord IS PRESENT / IS ALREADY HERE"), ONE THING must happen "FIRST" (and subsequently / distinctly, "the man of sin be revealed"--which "revealed" occurs at the START of the 7-yr period ['the day of the Lord' will then indeed be present!], not at the point when he does the "sitteth in the temple of God" thing 2Th2:4 in the "MIDDLE" point of the 7-yr period--but see, that's not his "whose COMING [/ARRIVAL / advent / presence / parousia]" point in the chronology 2Th2:9a [,8a]... no. Each Section of Scripture covering this same Subject ALL AGREE... regarding this person, there's the BEGINNING aspects, the MIDDLE aspects, and the ENDING aspects, ALL in AGREEMENT; You are only picking up on his doings from the MID-POINT on, and calling that as though that is his "revealed" moment, but that is only so much human reasonings, I realize commonly repeated so as to sound right, but ignores ALL of the passages TOGETHER which cover this Subject [ALL are in agreement, as I said])
so you believe the day of the lord in verse 2 mean 7 years tribulation , am I correct?
 

GaryA

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There is no drawn-out gathering of Christians by angels in the rapture. It Jesus Himself coming for us all in an INSTANT. Correct?
No.

Jesus does not "come" [for us] "in an instant" - it is "the change" - into having a glorified body - that occurs "in the twinkling of an eye"...

The Bible does not tell us exactly how long it will take to gather Christians...
 

TheDivineWatermark

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The 70th week of Daniel came to pass right after the 69th week (no gap) and ended in 34 A.D.
I forget... If you don't mind repeating :D , could you remind me what your understanding of the phrase "in the midst of the week" refers to (what time-slot)... iow, it could be expressed, "in the midst of the 7-yr 'Week'"... Also, what are you saying took place at that point, if 34ad is the final / 70th "Week [of seven years]" and ENDS it (if I'm understanding you correctly).

If I'm recalling correctly, you believe "in the midst of the week" means that there is either no second part of that "week," or that that part alone is relegated to the "far future" fulfillment (I forget if your view is either of these, or neither and is something else entirely... my apologies for not remembering every detail of your viewpoint :D )

No need for any long explanation, I'm just wondering how you are seeing the phrase "and in the midst of the week" (time-wise, in your viewpoint). Thanks!


[...] pretrib folks - who do not have a proper understanding of Daniel 9.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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No.

Jesus does not "come" [for us] "in an instant" - it is "the change" - into having a glorified body - that occurs "in the twinkling of an eye"...

The Bible does not tell us exactly how long it will take to gather Christians...
I think he means that we are "caught up TOGETHER WITH" them (WHEN THEY are "caught up") which is AT ONE POINT IN TIME (for both components); versus a "ye shall be gathered ONE BY ONE, O ye children of Israel" that takes place for THEM (and is parallel passage to Matt24:29-31 [and Romans 11, parts]), Isa27:12-13,9 (with v.9 corresponding with both Dan9:24 ["upon THY people, and upon THY holy city" (etc)] and Romans 11:26-27 regarding "Israel"... that is, Israel's FUTURE)
 

GaryA

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I forget... If you don't mind repeating :D , could you remind me what your understanding of the phrase "in the midst of the week" refers to (what time-slot)... iow, it could be expressed, "in the midst of the 7-yr 'Week'"... Also, what are you saying took place at that point, if 34ad is the final / 70th "Week [of seven years]" and ENDS it (if I'm understanding you correctly).

If I'm recalling correctly, you believe "in the midst of the week" means that there is either no second part of that "week," or that that part alone is relegated to the "far future" fulfillment (I forget if your view is either of these, or neither and is something else entirely... my apologies for not remembering every detail of your viewpoint :D ) { No apology necessary - I do not always remember "every detail" of the viewpoint of others either... ;) }

No need for any long explanation, I'm just wondering how you are seeing the phrase "and in the midst of the week" (time-wise, in your viewpoint). Thanks!
The quick-and-easy-answer --- please see:

http://mywebsite.us/BibleStudy/Seventy_Weeks.html
 

cv5

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No.

Jesus does not "come" [for us] "in an instant" - it is "the change" - into having a glorified body - that occurs "in the twinkling of an eye"...

The Bible does not tell us exactly how long it will take to gather Christians...
Wrong again. It is called the harpazo.....being "snatched". By the very definition of the terms and idioms, you know it's gonna be quick. And once for all....as one body. Therefore I would guess as quickly as Jesus can get the job done. Like really fast.

But yea sure I could give it a few milliseconds of delay between the shout, the snatch and the translating. I have no problem with that. But I would guess the Jesus is not going to waste any time getting His bride into His bosom. No doubt about that.
 

cv5

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I think he means that we are "caught up TOGETHER WITH" them (WHEN THEY are "caught up") which is AT ONE POINT IN TIME (for both components); versus a "ye shall be gathered ONE BY ONE, O ye children of Israel" that takes place for THEM (and is parallel passage to Matt24:29-31 [and Romans 11, parts]), Isa27:12-13,9 (with v.9 corresponding with both Dan9:24 ["upon THY people, and upon THY holy city" (etc)] and Romans 11:26-27 regarding "Israel"... that is, Israel's FUTURE)
Yup that's what I meant. At one juncture in time at one instant.
 

GaryA

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Wrong again. It is called the harpazo.....being "snatched". By the very definition of the terms and idioms, you know it's gonna be quick. And once for all....as one body. Therefore I would guess as quickly as Jesus can get the job done. Like really fast.

But yea sure I could give it a few milliseconds of delay between the shout, the snatch and the translating. I have no problem with that. But I would guess the Jesus is not going to waste any time getting His bride into His bosom. No doubt about that.
I am not wrong. In general, I agree that "it probably will not take long"; however, I am not going to force the Bible to say something it does not actually say. And, the only thing it indicates occurs "in an instant" is what I described. It stands to reason that the 'gathering' will actually take comparatively longer than the 'change'. In other words, even a 'snatch' is significantly longer than a 'twinkle'.
 

cv5

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The 70th week of Daniel came to pass right after the 69th week (no gap) and ended in 34 A.D.


Because, it is not a fact - only in the minds of pretrib folks - who do not have a proper understanding of Daniel 9.
For you to say since 34ad this world, or Israel, or anybody has enjoyed these things:

"finish the transgression" "make an end of sins" "bring in everlasting righteousness" etc etc

Is one of many many reasons that I find your bizarre version of eschatology not in the least credible. For you make those kinds of claims about supposedly fulfilled prophecy is absurd.
 

cv5

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I am not wrong. In general, I agree that "it probably will not take long"; however, I am not going to force the Bible to say something it does not actually say. And, the only thing it indicates occurs "in an instant" is what I described. It stands to reason that the 'gathering' will actually take comparatively longer than the 'change'. In other words, even a 'snatch' is significantly longer than a 'twinkle'.
Not when God is doing it.
 

GaryA

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Not when God is doing it.
We all know God can do anything He wishes to do; however, making assumptions that override what the Bible actually says tends to distort prophetic interpretation.
 

GaryA

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For you to say since 34ad this world, or Israel, or anybody has enjoyed these things:

"finish the transgression" "make an end of sins" "bring in everlasting righteousness" etc etc

Is one of many many reasons that I find your bizarre version of eschatology not in the least credible. For you make those kinds of claims about supposedly fulfilled prophecy is absurd.
There is an explanation on the web page linked to in post #210.

See if that helps... :)
 

GaryA

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I cannot understand how people can possibly miss the obvious fact that the 70th week of Daniel = 7 yr tribulation = Matt 24.
There is no 7-year 'prophetic' End Times period.

The erroneous idea that there is such a thing comes from the severe misinterpretation of Daniel 9.

The prophecy of Matthew 24 - as well as that of Revelation - has a span of ~2000 years - not 7 years.

Matthew 24:29 is describing events in a time frame that includes the Two Witnesses - including the Trumpet Events and after that for a bit - "Immediately after the tribulation of those days"...

The two witnesses [actually] cause the Trumpet Events to come about.

Matthew 24:30 is referring to Jesus appearing at the Second Coming of Christ.

Matthew 24:31 is referring to the rapture of the saints.
 

GaryA

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Great Tribulation ends
Two Witnesses
Trumpet Events
Second Coming of Christ
Resurrection & Rapture
Wrath of God
Armageddon
Marriage Supper
Millennium Begins