I can’t know everyone’s reason for speaking in tongues..but I would argue if everyone speaks the same language at church..then is there ever a reason to speak in tongues?
Your question is rooted in the assumption that "tongues" merely means "other human languages that people have learned". I contest that it
cannot mean that. "Other languages", yes, absolutely. "Learned"; absolutely not. For clarity, I will put the word "languages" in place of "tongues" in the following quote:
1 Corinthians 12 (NASB):
4 Now there are varieties of gifts, but the same Spirit. 5 And there are varieties of ministries, and the same Lord. 6 There are varieties of effects, but the same God who works all things in all
persons. 7 But to each one is given the manifestation of the Spirit for the common good. 8 For to one is given the word of wisdom through the Spirit, and to another the word of knowledge according to the same Spirit; 9 to another faith by the same Spirit, and to another gifts of healing by the one Spirit, 10 and to another the effecting of miracles, and to another prophecy, and to another the distinguishing of spirits, to another
various kinds of
languages, and to another the interpretation of
languages. 11 But one and the same Spirit works all these things, distributing to each one individually just as He wills.
This sets the context; Paul is talking about Spirit-given abilities, not naturally-learned abilities. Nobody "learns" how to work miracles. Nobody "learns" how to prophesy. Nobody "learns" how to heal. They are all
supernatural manifestations. In the same way, "languages" and "interpretation of languages" in this context are
supernatural. (For the record, people
can learn how to
handle a manifestation, but not how to
generate one.)
The nature of this context is reinforced in verse 14:2, where Paul says the following: "For the one who speaks in a
language does not speak to people, but to God; for no one understands, but in
his spirit he speaks mysteries." A person who is merely speaking a foreign language is not "speaking mysteries in his spirit".
Finally, in vs. 14:13-19, Paul says, "Therefore, one who speaks in a
language is to pray that he may interpret. 14 For if I pray in a
language, my spirit prays, but my mind is unproductive. 15 What is
the outcome then? I will pray with the spirit, but I will pray with the mind also; I will sing with the spirit, but I will sing with the mind also. 16 For otherwise, if you bless
God in the spirit
only, how will the one who occupies the place of the outsider
know to say the “Amen” at your giving of thanks, since he does not understand what you are saying? 17 For you are giving thanks well
enough, but the other person is not edified. 18 I thank God, I speak in
languages more than you all; 19 nevertheless, in church I prefer to speak five words with my mind so that I may instruct others also, rather than ten thousand words in a
language."
How is it that a person merely speaking a foreign language is
not using their mind? If Paul is praying in another language, is his spirit active but his mind inactive? That just doesn't make sense. Further, one does not have to be a Christian to learn multiple languages. If "speaking in tongues" is a manifestation of the Holy Spirit, how would non-Christians (ie. those without the Holy Spirit) be able to do so?
For these reasons, I believe that "speaking in tongues" is a manifestation of the Holy Spirit, and
not merely speaking a learned language that happens to be "foreign" to the local congregation. Also, interpretation of tongues is
not merely the ability to translate from a foreign language to the local language, which
anyone who knows both languages could do without any particular help from the Holy Spirit.