First of all "CONTEXT" is king and there is a lot of stuff going on in these verses, John 10:29-39. Starting at John 10:29, "My Father who has given them to Me, is greater than all; and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father's hand." Vs31, "The Jews took up stones "AGAIN" to stone Him." My question is why and what is the significance of the word "AGAIN?"
At John 5:17,18 we read, "But He/Jesus answered them, "My Father is working until now, and I Myself am working." Vs18, "For this cause therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the Sabbath, BUT WAS ALSO CALLING GOD HIS OWN FATHER, MAKING HIMSELF EQUAL WITH GOD." (This is what was meant by the "again" at John 10:31.
So getting back to John 10 Jesus says at vs32, "I showed you many good works, from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me? The following is how the Jesus answered Him, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for BLASPHEMY; and because You, being a man, make yourself out God." As a side not here is a good piece of advice someone years and years ago taught me on the issue of Jesus claiming to be God. I say this because you will meet people (like unitarians and many others that deny His deity by saying the Jews did not understand what Jesus was saying or they had in for Him all along and are confused at His words etc.
"Whether or not the Jews are correctly or incorrectly understanding Jesus is NOT the issue. The issue is "WHAT WAS IT THAT JESUS SAID that caused the Jews to accuse Him of blasphemy for claiming to be God?" You see in John 5:17,18 as well as here at John 10 Jesus was calling God His own Father. In fact, Jesus said the following to his parents at Luke 2:49, "Why is it you were looking for Me? Did you not know that I HAD TO BE ABOUT MY FATHER'S AFFAIRS." This is also why Jesus Christ according to John 3:16 is the one and only Son of God as in there are no others.
Now, getting back to John 10:34-36 Jesus brings up Psalm 82:6. What Jesus was doing is taking the Jew's statement about Him blaspheming to its logical conclusion to show that they are bein inconsistent. In effect, Jesus is saying, "If you say that I am blaspheming, you must also hold that God is blaspheming because He said to those by whom the word of God came, "ye are gods."
Or to put it another way Jesus was implying that what the Scriptures call humans "ALLEGORICALLY," He was in actuality since He does what onlyh God can do. Jesus was not saying men are gods but that men who were Judges were corrupt Judges and they will die just like the men that they are.
And one more side note for those anti's that say that Jesus was not claiming to be God or they misunderstood Jesus. Just tell them that Jesus is His own commentary because He is the one who brings up the "gods" issue from Psalm 82:6. Another thing you might hear is that at John 10:36 Jesus is not claiming to be God but claiming to be the Son of God." Well if that is true then there would be no need to accuse Jesus of blasphem at John 10:33 because the Jews themselves claim to be the son of God which is not a blasphemy offense. Hope this helps.
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto