For one thing, "the things WHICH ARE" (chpts 2-3) are not given a "time-length".
And "the things WHICH ARE" are set in contradistinction to "the things which must take place AFTER THESE [THINGS]".
John wasn't told (apparently) "how long" that "the things WHICH ARE" would continue/last.
But he WAS told (by Jesus) "I WILL SHOW you what [things] must come to pass AFTER THESE [THINGS]" [4:1] (which corresponds with what 1:1 was saying).
(SAME thing Jesus was given "TO SHOW UNTO" [in v.1], which verse spells out the length of time FOR THOSE "SHOWN" ['TO SHOW UNTO'] things... that is, the "IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" time-period things, aka "the 7-yr [PROPHESIED] Trib period of time"... [same time-period as both Lk18:8 and Rom16:20 also speak to (<--tho distinct locations for each of these two verses)... a specific, *future*, LIMITED time-period, what we call the Trib, or 70th Week (7 yrs)])
And "the things WHICH ARE" are set in contradistinction to "the things which must take place AFTER THESE [THINGS]".
John wasn't told (apparently) "how long" that "the things WHICH ARE" would continue/last.
But he WAS told (by Jesus) "I WILL SHOW you what [things] must come to pass AFTER THESE [THINGS]" [4:1] (which corresponds with what 1:1 was saying).
(SAME thing Jesus was given "TO SHOW UNTO" [in v.1], which verse spells out the length of time FOR THOSE "SHOWN" ['TO SHOW UNTO'] things... that is, the "IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" time-period things, aka "the 7-yr [PROPHESIED] Trib period of time"... [same time-period as both Lk18:8 and Rom16:20 also speak to (<--tho distinct locations for each of these two verses)... a specific, *future*, LIMITED time-period, what we call the Trib, or 70th Week (7 yrs)])
Don't make this more complicated than it is! It is a simple book for the most part.
Question: Did God show John things in His future and even in our future?
You will certainly agree with this point and say YES. Most of the rest of the book are things still in OUR future.
Therefore, "I will shew thee things which must be hereafter" is a simple statement of fact that Jesus CERTAINLY satisfied.
"But he WAS told (by Jesus) "I WILL SHOW you what [things] must come to pass AFTER THESE [THINGS]"
Please allow me to rewrite this from first person.
I WAS told (by Jesus) (after He finished dictating to me the messages to the churches) "I WILL SHOW you what [things] must come to pass.
This is the only meaning we should get. God dictated message. Then the dictation ended. Then he saw a voice in heaven and saw an open door. Then He heard that same voice again saying "Come up hither, and I will shew thee things which must be hereafter. "
See how simple this is? Jesus made a simple statement of fact: He was going to show John things in His future. DID God do this? Decidedly yes.
Did this statement of fact forbid God to show John things in his past? Definitely not! You are reading preconceived ideas into this passage. Please don't do that. Don't give posttribbers any kind of argument. They can read too.
WHEN did this happen? around 95 AD. my friend, you cannot find 2000 years here. This happened in John's live around 95 AD. Now, what John saw in the vision is a different story. In the vision God was showing John the throne room while Jesus was still on earth.
You have tried to juxtapose what happened outside the vision to what was happening IN the vision. In doing so you were pulling what was inside the vision OUT OF CONTEXT. I can only guess you would do this to attempt to prove something false as truth.
Rev. 1:1 The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John:
From here, the theme of the book, we find again that it is to show John and then us, things in the future from that point in time: 95 AD.
AMP So write the things which you have seen [in the vision], and the things which are [now happening], and the things which will take place after these things.
CEB So write down what you have seen, both the scene now before you and the things that are about to unfold after this.
Phillips write down what you have seen, both the things which are now, and the things which are to be hereafter.
Wycliff Therfor write thou whiche thingis thou hast seyn, and whiche ben, and whiche it bihoueth to be don aftir these thingis.
Tyndale wryte therfore the thynges which thou haste sene and the thynges which are and the thynges which shalbe fulfylled hereafter:
Coverdale Wryte therfore the thinges which thou hast sene, and the thinges which are, and ye thinges which shalbe fulfylled here after:
Bishops Write therfore the thinges which thou hast seene, and the thynges which are, and the thinges which must be fulfilled hereafter.
There is not much difference from 1535 AD to the Amplified today. Again this is a statement of fact: a command imperative sentence: John, you write... I think the Amp. captures the meaning as well as any: " the things which you have seen [in the vision], and the things which are [now happening], and the things which will take place after these things."
Does any of the three: 1:1, 1:19 or 4:1 disagree with any other? No.
Conclusion? The first seal was opened as soon as Jesus ascended.