I think you're speaking of the
"Olive Tree" of Romans 11, right?
Here's what I've posted in the past (on this Subject):
[quoting my past posts on this]
I'm looking for a different quote by George V Wigram... but (in the meantime) in its place, I'll just post this brief portion also by him (note the phrase
"God's governmental ways on earth," which is what I believe
Roman's 11's "olive tree" represents):
[quoting Wigram]
"Gen. 27:29 [Isaac blessing Jacob]. Let peoples (
gamnzim, pl.), serve thee and [manners or sorts of ] nations (
l'ummim, pl.) bow down to thee: be lord [a mighty man] over thy brethren.
"Observe, this would not run the source of the division of people back to Shem, Ham and Japhet, so as to make the word to be equivalent to what we call the races of people, in connection with the Noahic earth, who constitute the whole human family.
The subdivision here alluded to took place in the family of Isaac, type of the heir of promise, not earlier;
and the heads of this subdivision are brought before us in Rom. 9 All God's ways and subdivisions are to be noted."
[also]
"f Israel is the
goh'y of experience, promise, blessing on the earth; the center of all
God's governmental ways on earth; but in saying that, I look at them from outside and as one whole. When they are owned as
gammi, my people, their detailed state and associations within is the aspect in which they are considered."
--George V Wigram
http://bibletruthpublishers.com/heb...t-testimony-psalms-article/g-v-wigram/la61041
____________
[quoting that other article by Wigram]
"[re: Romans 11]
In Jesus Christ, if the question be about Christian position, eternal life, or the Church considered in her essential relationship to Christ, there was neither Jew nor Gentile; the thoughts found in this chapter [Romans 11] can THERE have no place. If the question be about the cutting off of an individual for sinful conduct, little matters it whether he be Jew or Gentile; that has nothing to do with it, and on the other hand, there would be no question about grafting in again of the Jews more than of any others, and neither Jews nor others could be grafted in, if God had cut them off in such a manner.
And if it were a question about a warning from the Apostle to Christians at Rome, and so to others elsewhere, as being brethren, it would be almost nonsense to say, " And thou, O Gentile, take heed!" Why, thou, O Gentile? Had not Christians, Jews by birth, as much need to take heed? Or could the Spirit of God, in such a warning, have made the distinction, and thus denied the principle of, the Church of God in which there is neither Jew nor Gentile?
If the question is about a divine administration upon earth, then God can well make the distinction and develop his ways towards the one and the other; and it is plain that from the commencement of the ninth chapter the Apostle is occupied with and pointedly contrasts the Jews and the Gentiles, presenting us with the administration of the divine ways upon the earth. First declaring his attachment to Israel, he points out an election in the election for the earth, and further, that if God according to his sovereignty had chosen Israel (and such was Israel's boast), He had not renounced His sovereignty; and consequently, He could call the Gentiles if he would. Then he recalls to mind that the prophets had shown that a little remnant only, of Israel, at such an epoch, would be saved, and that a stone of stumbling would be laid in Zion."
-- Thoughts on Romans 11 and the Responsibility of the Church, Present Testimony: Volume 4 George V. Wigram
http://bibletruthpublishers.com/tho...the-church/present-testimony-volume-4/la85282
[end quoting; bold and underline mine]
[end quoting old posts]
____________
[bearing in mind that the section
Romans 9-11 is basically covering the Subject of "nations" ("Israel [singular nation]" and "the Gentiles [plural nations]"--see how many times "Israel / Israelites," "Gentiles" [and their corresponding pronouns] are contrasted throughout this section)]
____________
Your question has to do with "after the resurrection"... [of who? "the Church WHICH IS HIS BODY"? the OT saints? the Trib saints? Who do you mean? Just asking...]
In "the Church WHICH IS HIS BODY," there is NO DISTINCTION (in our standing before God "IN CHRIST"... though
made up of both Jews and Gentiles);
those who come to faith FOLLOWING "our Rapture / THE Departure," Scripture shows those "Jews/Israel [singular nation]" and "the Gentiles [/nations plural]" as being distinct.
"The 12" were told they will "sit on 12 thrones, judg
ING the 12 tribes of Israel" (in the MK age;
per Lk22:30 / Matt19:28)... so it is apparent that the "12 tribes of Israel" will be in existence then (and that is not the specific task *
we / the Church
which is His body* have been assigned, for example).
[
Eph1:10 ('[That]
in the dispensation of the fulness of times') is
not speaking of "this
present age [singular]"/the "
NOW" as the rest of the epistle is, for another example... though many suggest that it is]
Hope this helps you see my perspective, somewhat... = )