Who are the two witnesses/prophets in Revelation?

[miknik5]

Yes "he pleased God" Hebrews 11:5 Enoch had the testimony of God that he pleased him. Now afterwards the world was destroyed by the flood in the times of Noah and so although Enoch had pleased God it is apparent that Enoch's testimony/witness went unheeded by the world then present and it was destroyed(but not Enoch) and the eight replenished the earth.

From there Elisha ask something in that he ask for a "double portion of the spirit" at the time Elijah is taken in a chariot of fire. Now only an first born is given this as it is the first born heir who receives the "double portion" of the inheritance. So Elisha is asking for something that Elijah represents in that Elijah is who held this and it is then given to Elisha as Elijah is taken in the chariot of fire. From Moses to John the baptist(Elijah) Luke 16:16,Matthew 11:13 this took place, that is the double portion of something.

Now baring this in mind that it is written that Isaiah 1;26, the judges and counsellors would be restored as in the beginning where in time is this to take place or did it take place?

In Revelation 11:3 it is said that these two witnesses will prophesy 1260 days. So not for half this time and then be killed by the beast but from the beginning of that time to the end of the 1260 days and then they will be killed by the beast. This I think poses a problem to some of the things I have mentioned in that in Revelation 17:8 the beast that is to kill the two witnesses,Revelation 11:7 was not in the earth at the time John the Baptist was alive nor before Jesus was crucified,Revelation 11:7.

So then as is seen many say the Revelation is given at an early date and some at an later date(before or after ad70) but either way would make no difference because of Revelation 17:8. That is at the time the Revelation was given the angel says that the beast is "in the pit" and that he would ascend out of it at a later time. So the beast that is to kill the two witnesses,Revelation 11:7 was not present in the earth while JTB lived.

So if the beast that is to kill the two witnesses had not yet ascended from the pit then it is odd that it could be seen that he had slain anything prior to his ascension whether it is symbolic or literal. So from the time that the Revelation was given it I think is more important to see when the two witnesses are spoken of as present that is Revelation 11:1-3 ,that is from the time the temple,alter and those who worship therein are measured.

The abyss/pit is opened at revelation 9
please in light of your statement that the beast was not upon the earth, can you factor in what happens and when as per revelation 9. This happens before the two witnesses begin giving their testimony and during (at least) a portion of the time ofvttibulation

 

[miknik5]

Revelation 17 and 9 can’t be two separate events

 

[iamsoandso]

Revelation 17 and 9 can’t be two separate events

In Revelation 9 does the one from the pit do harm to the ones who have the mark or to the Christians?

 

[iamsoandso]

Revelation 17 and 9 can’t be two separate events

I apologize for my former post #63 in that you expected and deserve an much more in-depth response than I gave. In times past I have brought this up about the bottomless pit and what I ask you in post 63 and found it to be controversial at least.

As I have no desire to distract from the given thread subject I should say this in brief. That is that I have found that at times many see the meanings to certain words as they would apply in our day and not bare in mind the full scope and meaning as used by those in the past and this word abyss is a good example.

In Hebrew this is tehom Strong's Hebrew: 8415. תְּהוֹם (tehom) -- deep, sea, abyss and in Greek abussos Strong's Greek: 12. ἄβυσσος (abussos) -- boundless, bottomless . Now I find it is used one way in the old testament and differently in the new testament this is an example of one of the ways it is treated as to it's meaning https://www.biblestudytools.com/dictionary/abyss/ .

Now after looking over the different ways it is used in the scriptures there are certain things I noticed in that not only does it speak of this place as the abode of demons,spirits and even the devil being bound there our Lord also descended there and after three days was resurrected from it(?)...

Now in Revelation 9:1 when the 5th angel sounds a "star" falls from heaven and is referenced to as "him"(end of same verse) but now he (star that fell from heaven) who has the key(pit) and the king of the locusts are not the same "him". In Revelation 20:1 an angel also has the key and a chain and binds the devil and puts him in the pit(not lake of fire).

The beast that ascends from the pit in Revelation 17:8 and the beast from Revelation 19:20 it states are the who caused those to worship the image and receive the mark ect. and then is cast into the "lake of fire"(not the pit where it ascended from).

So in Revelation 9 the locusts and their king are given to torture those who "have the mark"(not to kill) and so if they are sent to torture those who have the mark then that would mean that the beast that ascends from the pit in Revelation 17:8 would have to come prior to Revelation 9's events or else none would have the mark yet(the beast comes,the his mark,then the locusts)...hope that helped,lol