TDW has built an eschatology on the idea that Luke 21 is a first century prophecy, and that Matthew 24 is an end of days prophecy.
Does this make any sense?
To be abundantly clear, what I've stated is that
only PARTS of Luke 21 are about the events surrounding 70ad (vv.12-24a, with 24b following on from there [the "UNTIL" part is not CONCLUDED until the END of the future Trib yrs, "Jerusalem...
TRODDEN DOWN OF"...
also per Rev11:2]);
...
whereas ALL of Matt24:4 and onward (thru both chpts) is the far-future Trib years (7 yrs / "ONE WEEK"),
because "the beginning of birth PANG
S [
Matt24:4-8 / Mk13:5-8 / Lk21:8-11] are EQUIVALENT to the "SEALS" of Rev6 IN/WITHIN what
Rev1:1 / 1:19c / 4:1 calls the
'IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" time period [
parallel Lk18:8 (2Th1:7-9) and Rom16:20 (1Cor6:3[14])]--NOT that which unfolds over the course of some near-2000 yrs... and not speaking of "the things WHICH ARE" which BY CONTRAST are things NOT said of them are "things which must come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]"
as these are (starting with the 4:1 "SHOW" and INCLUDING the FIRST SEAL, aka the INITIAL "birth
PANG [
SINGULAR]" that Paul says is the ARRIVAL OF "the day of the Lord" time-period, that COMES UPON a woman... per 1Th5:2-3 [/2Th2:3-9a]... aka the "IN THE NIGHT" ["DARK / DARKNESS"] time period that IS the 7-yr TRIB / "FOR ONE WEEK"--that WE/the Church WHICH IS HIS BODY will NOT be present ON THE EARTH for)...
That is, ALL of Matt24:4 and onward is far-future and describes what
FOLLOWS "our Rapture" event