Why did God give the Israelites a Law that they could never obey fully?

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onlinebuddy

Senior Member
Sep 1, 2012
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#1
Firstly, God did not give the Israelites a heart that would understand and obey, when they were in the desert, according to the following verse
Duet 29:4 “Yet to this day the LORD has not given you a heart to know, nor eyes to see,
nor ears to hear.


Everyone above 20 years of age died in the desert after roaming therein for 40 years.

Next, when the younger generation was about to leave the desert and enter Canaan in Deut 29, God bound them with the Mosaic Law.
This was a covenant of obedience and could not make them righteous or could not save them.

In Lev 26 we read about the blessings and the curses attached to the Law.

EVERY SINGLE PERSON would have to obey EVERY SINGLE COMMANDMENT of the Law.
Even if a single person failed to obey, the entire nation would be cursed!!!
Isn't that too rigid and strict?

Since the Jews could not obey the Law, they stand cursed.
If I'm not mistaken, the nation of Israel will one day be restored. However, ALL the terrible curses of the Law would fall on them before that.

Doesn't that sound unjust?

I know and believe that God is perfectly just. However, I would like to hear your comments and understanding on the above.
 

phil36

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2009
8,260
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#2
Firstly, God did not give the Israelites a heart that would understand and obey, when they were in the desert, according to the following verse
Duet 29:4 “Yet to this day the LORD has not given you a heart to know, nor eyes to see,
nor ears to hear.


Everyone above 20 years of age died in the desert after roaming therein for 40 years.

Next, when the younger generation was about to leave the desert and enter Canaan in Deut 29, God bound them with the Mosaic Law.
This was a covenant of obedience and could not make them righteous or could not save them.

In Lev 26 we read about the blessings and the curses attached to the Law.

EVERY SINGLE PERSON would have to obey EVERY SINGLE COMMANDMENT of the Law.
Even if a single person failed to obey, the entire nation would be cursed!!!
Isn't that too rigid and strict?

Since the Jews could not obey the Law, they stand cursed.
If I'm not mistaken, the nation of Israel will one day be restored. However, ALL the terrible curses of the Law would fall on them before that.

Doesn't that sound unjust?

I know and believe that God is perfectly just. However, I would like to hear your comments and understanding on the above.


Yes it sounds harsh the way you have stated it. Yet, God being merciful, provided the sacrifice to cover their sins..they had the shadow of what was to come...Christ...who is the true Prophet,Priest and King.

And I wouldnt bet on Israel being restored..thats more of a dispensational dream. The promise for Godf's children will be fulfilled one day and it will be glorious..the New Heaven and earth where God will dwell eternally with His Children both Jew and Greek.
 
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Eccl12and13

Guest
#3


EVERY SINGLE PERSON would have to obey EVERY SINGLE COMMANDMENT of the Law.
Even if a single person failed to obey, the entire nation would be cursed!!!




Please provide Book, Chapter and verse that supports your claim!



.
 

phil36

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2009
8,260
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#4
The Law reflects perfectly a Holy and Just God, and serves to remind of man inability to be holy himself.

But the law also points to something else. For instance:

You shall not kill - points to a time when there will be no more killing etc
 

phil36

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2009
8,260
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#5
Please provide Book, Chapter and verse that supports your claim!



.
think he is refering to Jame 2:10


For whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles at just one point is guilty of breaking all of it.
 
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Eccl12and13

Guest
#6
think he is refering to Jame 2:10


For whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles at just one point is guilty of breaking all of it.

I am almost positive that is what he is referring to. But, as always, most get this passage of scripture incorrect.

The reason I know his statement is incorrect is because of ALL of the Israelites that were blessed AFTER sinning.

Job and David to name a few!

.
 

phil36

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2009
8,260
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#7
I am almost positive that is what he is referring to. But, as always, most get this passage of scripture incorrect.

The reason I know his statement is incorrect is because of ALL of the Israelites that were blessed AFTER sinning.

Job and David to name a few!

.
Yes but they were still guilty under the law. If you break one law you break them all as James says. They werer blessed because firstly God had chosen them and they through Grace repented.
 
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Eccl12and13

Guest
#8
"....If you break one law you break them all as James says."
Did James really mean that if you broke just ONE of God's laws that you have literally broke ALL of God's laws? And if so....was this an endorsement to not attempt to keep ANY of God's laws?

This is NOT the meaning James was trying to convey.

Let's read a little further up

James 2
[8] If ye fulfil the royal law according to the scripture, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself, ye do well:

So the very first thing James tells us to do is to KEEP A LAW! Knowing that NO ONE is perfect, why would James start off by telling us to keep a law? If he thinks that by breaking just one law you break them all, why would he start off by telling us to keep a law? Does that make sense? No it does not! Let's continue;

[9] But if ye have respect to persons, ye commit sin, and are convinced of the law as transgressors.

Now James tells us, although you may love your neighbour, if you still have respect to persons, you have still committed a sin. So although you keep the one law, loving your neighbour, if you break ANY OTHER LAWS, you are still a sinner. So it does not matter WHAT law you break, if you break ANY law it is AS IF you have broken them all. James goes on to explain this in the following verse;

[10] For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all.

Now let's read the next verse to see how James explains this;

[11] For he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if thou commit no adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a transgressor of the law.

Notice HOW James explains this to us; if a person does not commit adultery, but yet kills, he is a sinner. The same would hold true for the following;

If a person goes their entire life without killing or stealing, but they are constantly bearing false witness against their neighbour, it would be no difference than if they had spent their entire life killing or stealing.

What James is saying here is that there are no small sins nor big sins. There is no such thing as a little "white lie"! A LIE IS A LIE!! And as far as God is concerned A SIN IS A SIN! Let's read the above verse again;


[11] For he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if thou commit no adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a transgressor of the law.

So is James saying you are literally braking ALL of Gods laws if you break one? No he is not!


What James is saying is;

If you steal it bears the same consequence as one that kills.
If you kill it bears the same consequence as one that lies.
If you have respect of persons it bears the same consequence as one that kills.
If you worship idols it bears the same consequence as one that have respect of persons.
If you covet it bears the same consequence as one that commits fornication.

Now......do you think James was going to go through ALL of the commandments this way? Of course not.

So what did James just simply say?

"For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all."

Again....James is NOT saying that you literally break ALL of God's laws by breaking just one commandment. James is simply saying that if you break one of God's laws it would be as though you broke ANY of the others; NOT that you BROKE ALL OF THE OTHERS!

As I said above, what James is trying to convey is that to God, breaking ANY of His laws is that same as breaking any of the others. Breaking one law bears no greater consequence that breaking any other law. To God ALL are the same.


.
 
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Eccl12and13

Guest
#9


EVERY SINGLE PERSON would have to obey EVERY SINGLE COMMANDMENT of the Law.
Even if a single person failed to obey, the entire nation would be cursed!!!





Please provide Book, Chapter and verse that supports your claim!



.
 

onlinebuddy

Senior Member
Sep 1, 2012
1,115
24
38
#10
Please provide Book, Chapter and verse that supports your claim!.

@Eccl12and13,
Firstly, I am just a student of this topic, and I am not claiming anything, although it sounds so.
I am just seeking a good explanation. .
Secondly, as I have mentioned earlier, I believe that God is perfectly just and merciful.

I know that the Law, which had no grace, was just a shadow to usher in grace through Christ.
Whether we read about the Old Covenant, or the New Covenant, God is consistent and not capricious.
I know that the Israelites ASKED FOR all the slavery and exiles due to their disobedience.
I also know that David and Job were shown mercy and lifted up by God. (However, they paid dearly for their sins)

1 Jn 5:3 says that His commands are not burdensome. However, I find the OT Law to be very burdensome.

===================================================================
Coming back to the topic:
Weren't the Israelites commanded to follow ALL the commandments of the Law?
Lev. 26:14 ‘ But if you do not obey Me and do not carry out all these commandments,
===================================================================
Furthermore, in order to receive mercy and to receive the blessings of the covenant(made to Abraham, and Isaac and Jacob), they were told to (verses quoted below)
-confess their sins
-confess the sins of their fathers (indicating that God would deal with the Jews as a nation, and not individually)
- humble themselves
- pay for their sin (i.e. suffer the consequences)

Lev 26 (NIV)
40" 'But if they will confess their sins and the sins of their fathers--their treachery against me and their hostility toward me,
41which made me hostile toward them so that I sent them into the land of their enemies--then when their uncircumcised hearts are humbled and they pay for their sin,
42I will remember my covenant with Jacob and my covenant with Isaac and my covenant with Abraham, and I will remember the land.


Wasn't God dealing with the Jews collectively as a nation? If one person broke one commandment, the entire nation would have to suffer (similar to the fact that all mankind was cursed because of Adam, and off course blessed through one man: Jesus). God would restore his covenant with Israel only if a particular generation would confess their sins, the sins of their fathers and pay for their sins.

About the restoration of Israel (which is supposed to happen after rapture of the Church), I am still researching the topic, and haven't come to any solid conclusions yet. Meanwhile, I am happy knowing that Jesus saves everyone in our generation: both Jews and Gentiles.

 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,189
113
#11
Please provide Book, Chapter and verse that supports your claim!



.
He's on the right track but missed slightly. The Israelites had an intercessor with God who was their high priest. This high priest would make sacrifices and atone for the people of Israel.

The High Priest had to be Perfect to fully intercede for all the sins of Israel.

This did not happen until the Lord Jesus Christ.

Hebrews 5:1-4
1For every high priest taken from among men is ordained for men in things pertaining to God, that he may offer both gifts and sacrifices for sins:
2 Who can have compassion on the ignorant, and on them that are out of the way; for that he himself also is compassed with infirmity.
3And by reason hereof he ought, as for the people, so also for himself, to offer for sins.
4 And no man taketh this honour unto himself, but he that is called of God, as was Aaron.

God judges Israel based on their High Priest. It happens the same way now.
 
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Eccl12and13

Guest
#12


Coming back to the topic:
Weren't the Israelites commanded to follow ALL the commandments of the Law?

Wasn't God dealing with the Jews collectively as a nation? If one person broke one commandment, the entire nation would have to suffer



Just think about this for a moment... If just ONE person broke just ONE of God's commandments then ALL of the nation of Israel would be punished?

Does this sound like the actions of a God that have told His people the following; " The LORD is longsuffering, and of great mercy, forgiving iniquity and transgression......"


Now let's consider just one action of the nations of Israel to find if the above was true. Let's find if the following assumption (If just ONE person broke just ONE of God's commandments then ALL of the nation of Israel would be punished.) was in fact true;


Num.14
[1] And all the congregation lifted up their voice, and cried; and the people wept that night.
[2] And all the children of Israel murmured against Moses and against Aaron: and the whole congregation said unto them, Would God that we had died in the land of Egypt! or would God we had died in this wilderness!
[19] Pardon, I beseech thee, the iniquity of this people according unto the greatness of thy mercy, and as thou hast forgiven this people, from Egypt even until now.

Now let's read if ALL of the nation if Israel were punished for the sins of some;

Num.14
[31] But your little ones, which ye said should be a prey, them will I bring in, and they shall know the land which ye have despised.

Now even though God made these little ones to wonder in the wilderness for 40 years, in spite of the sins of their elders they were still blessed and allowed to enter into the land that was promised to them.

So we can clearly see from just this one event that the assumption (If just ONE person broke just ONE of God's commandments then ALL of the nation of Israel would be punished.) is not true.

As a matter of fact, throughout the entire OT we find that when Israel obeyed the commandments of God they were blessed, even AFTER times of disobedience.


.
 
Jul 27, 2011
1,622
89
0
#13
God never puts any thing on us we can't handle. Could not or, would not? we can do all things through Christ Jesus. Just thought i'd throw that out there.
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,189
113
#14
God never puts any thing on us we can't handle. Could not or, would not? we can do all things through Christ Jesus. Just thought i'd throw that out there.
Luke 18:27 And he said, The things which are impossible with men are possible with God.

Some things are specifically designed for you to not be able to do but to have to ask God for His Help.

God has put plenty of things on me that I couldn't handle. But these things have blessed me in that now I know I can call on my Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ for His ever present help.

 

onlinebuddy

Senior Member
Sep 1, 2012
1,115
24
38
#15
Just think about this for a moment... If just ONE person broke just ONE of God's commandments then ALL of the nation of Israel would be punished?

Does this sound like the actions of a God that have told His people the following; " The LORD is longsuffering, and of great mercy, forgiving iniquity and transgression......"


Now let's consider just one action of the nations of Israel to find if the above was true. Let's find if the following assumption (If just ONE person broke just ONE of God's commandments then ALL of the nation of Israel would be punished.) was in fact true;


Num.14
[1] And all the congregation lifted up their voice, and cried; and the people wept that night.
[2] And all the children of Israel murmured against Moses and against Aaron: and the whole congregation said unto them, Would God that we had died in the land of Egypt! or would God we had died in this wilderness!
[19] Pardon, I beseech thee, the iniquity of this people according unto the greatness of thy mercy, and as thou hast forgiven this people, from Egypt even until now.

Now let's read if ALL of the nation if Israel were punished for the sins of some;

Num.14
[31] But your little ones, which ye said should be a prey, them will I bring in, and they shall know the land which ye have despised.

Now even though God made these little ones to wonder in the wilderness for 40 years, in spite of the sins of their elders they were still blessed and allowed to enter into the land that was promised to them.

So we can clearly see from just this one event that the assumption (If just ONE person broke just ONE of God's commandments then ALL of the nation of Israel would be punished.) is not true.

As a matter of fact, throughout the entire OT we find that when Israel obeyed the commandments of God they were blessed, even AFTER times of disobedience.


.

I agree with you. In the above case, God did not punish the teenagers (and below) for the sins of their fathers.

But if you read the entire chapter, God wanted to wipe out the entire nation of Israel (if I'm not wrong) and continue his promise through the posterity of Moses. However, Moses interceded for Israel (he was a type of Christ), and God relented.

Also, God saw great faith in Joshua and Caleb, and therefore decided that they would lead young Israel into the promised land.

About one being punished for the sins of the other:
Isn't the entire human race cursed because of Adam's sin? Death came to all humankind because of Adam's sin. Yes, I agree that similarly salvation came through one man (Yeshua, Jesus).

In Moses' own words, "The LORD is slow to anger, abounding in love and forgiving sin and rebellion. Yet he does not leave the guilty unpunished; he punishes the children for the sin of the fathers to the third and fourth generation." - Num 14:18 (NIV)

So God does punish the children for the sins of their fathers, doesn't he?

This is just a fact about the nature of a good and perfect God, which enables Him to bring about his purposes to completion as a whole, all for His glory. Praise be to Yahweh God!

Coming back to the topic:
God did give the Israelites a Law that they could not keep, didn't He?
Due to their disobedience (inability to keep the Law), doesn't Israel (as a nation) stand cursed as of today?
They could not keep the Law (which no one can), and they did not receive Jesus as their Messiah. So they stand cursed as per the Old Covenant, don't they?

(Whether they will be restored or not, is a topic for later)

 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
21,240
6,532
113
#16
The Children of Israel, while they were in the wilderness, were disobedient, and by their disobedience salvation was gained by the nations....

A few words are sufficient to the wise........
 
P

psychomom

Guest
#17
Don--
I find that verse most misunderstood.
1 Cor. 10:13 is specifically referring to temptation.
God promises that we will never be tempted beyond what we are able; that He will always provide us with a way to resist any temptation that comes our way.

I agree with Grandpa here...I have personally been in situations that were more than I could deal with on an emotional or physical level.
When my little nephew was missing for four days and found dead...I don't even know how my sister could have lived through that without the Lord's strength. But He is ever faithful, and we really can do all things with Him.
We have a Rock we can stand on, and a power not of ourselves to rely on. :)

ps-- my apologies, OP for the tangent! I hope you will forgive me.
 
M

megaman125

Guest
#18
Firstly, God did not give the Israelites a heart that would understand and obey, when they were in the desert, according to the following verse
Duet 29:4 “Yet to this day the LORD has not given you a heart to know, nor eyes to see,
nor ears to hear.


Everyone above 20 years of age died in the desert after roaming therein for 40 years.

Next, when the younger generation was about to leave the desert and enter Canaan in Deut 29, God bound them with the Mosaic Law.
This was a covenant of obedience and could not make them righteous or could not save them.

In Lev 26 we read about the blessings and the curses attached to the Law.

EVERY SINGLE PERSON would have to obey EVERY SINGLE COMMANDMENT of the Law.
Even if a single person failed to obey, the entire nation would be cursed!!!
Isn't that too rigid and strict?

Since the Jews could not obey the Law, they stand cursed.
If I'm not mistaken, the nation of Israel will one day be restored. However, ALL the terrible curses of the Law would fall on them before that.

Doesn't that sound unjust?

I know and believe that God is perfectly just. However, I would like to hear your comments and understanding on the above.
This issue is a pride issue. When the Israelites first came out of Egypt, and they complained, God just resolved their complaints, no punishment, no anger, no curses. They were under grace. God just gave to them. However, after the Israelites said "All the words that the LORD has spoken we will do," (Exodus 24:3) they were making a statement of pride, saying that they could do everything God commanded, obeying all the laws. From this point on, they moved out of God's grace and into the realm of pride. Now when they failed to keep God's commandments, that's when God's anger was kindled, and plauges and curses came upon them. The issue was pride.

Prior to Exodus 24:3, whenever the people complained, God just gave to them. Moses even got fed up with their complaints. In Exodus 17, the people complained about not having enough water, and what did God do? God gave them water. He didn't get angry, no curses, no plauges. Numbers 11 people complained about the mana God was giving them and wanted meat. They got meat, and they also got a plauge when God's anger was kindled. What's the difference? Numbers 11 is after they made the prideful statement in Exodus 24:3, whereas in Exodus 17, they were under grace.
 

onlinebuddy

Senior Member
Sep 1, 2012
1,115
24
38
#19
This issue is a pride issue. When the Israelites first came out of Egypt, and they complained, God just resolved their complaints, no punishment, no anger, no curses. They were under grace. God just gave to them. However, after the Israelites said "All the words that the LORD has spoken we will do," (Exodus 24:3) they were making a statement of pride, saying that they could do everything God commanded, obeying all the laws. From this point on, they moved out of God's grace and into the realm of pride. Now when they failed to keep God's commandments, that's when God's anger was kindled, and plauges and curses came upon them. The issue was pride.

Prior to Exodus 24:3, whenever the people complained, God just gave to them. Moses even got fed up with their complaints. In Exodus 17, the people complained about not having enough water, and what did God do? God gave them water. He didn't get angry, no curses, no plauges. Numbers 11 people complained about the mana God was giving them and wanted meat. They got meat, and they also got a plauge when God's anger was kindled. What's the difference? Numbers 11 is after they made the prideful statement in Exodus 24:3, whereas in Exodus 17, they were under grace.
This is beginning to make sense now. Thanks megaman.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#20
This issue is a pride issue. When the Israelites first came out of Egypt, and they complained, God just resolved their complaints, no punishment, no anger, no curses. They were under grace. God just gave to them. However, after the Israelites said "All the words that the LORD has spoken we will do," (Exodus 24:3) they were making a statement of pride, saying that they could do everything God commanded, obeying all the laws. From this point on, they moved out of God's grace and into the realm of pride. Now when they failed to keep God's commandments, that's when God's anger was kindled, and plauges and curses came upon them. The issue was pride.

Prior to Exodus 24:3, whenever the people complained, God just gave to them. Moses even got fed up with their complaints. In Exodus 17, the people complained about not having enough water, and what did God do? God gave them water. He didn't get angry, no curses, no plauges. Numbers 11 people complained about the mana God was giving them and wanted meat. They got meat, and they also got a plauge when God's anger was kindled. What's the difference? Numbers 11 is after they made the prideful statement in Exodus 24:3, whereas in Exodus 17, they were under grace.
I would say they were always under grace, God has always dealt with mankind by Grace. We know this because of the great murderer and adulterer who was also called the friend of God. As David said, Sacrifice and burnt offering you did not desire.

What the law did was show man he needed God. He was able to see his sin, and had no excuse. He was also shown the way to redemption. The murder or slaughter of the lamb.