Why didn’t Jonah just jump off the boat?

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posthuman

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Jul 31, 2013
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you posted the reference, so i posted the actual verse.
whose at fault if it doesn't surpport your position?

You failed to prove Proverbs 15:30 does not include physical bones.

Then I posted Proverbs 4:20-23 which clearly proves the Lord is speaking about our body

So your mind is made up and you will never be bothered with healing from the Lord.

You are on your own pal.
 

posthuman

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Jul 31, 2013
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You failed to prove Proverbs 15:30 does not include physical bones.

Then I posted Proverbs 4:20-23 which clearly proves the Lord is speaking about our body

So your mind is made up and you will never be bothered with healing from the Lord.

You are on your own pal.
off topic. there's a thread specifically for this. post in it.
 
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why don't you want to have a discussion about the specific off topic issue you brought up? i made a thread specifically for it, but you aren't engaging with it.

I've already proven in this thread that you reject the clear reading of scripture on this topic.

No need to go any further with someone who has already made up their mind.

It's very simple that I receive healing from the Lord and you don't.

To each their own. Enjoy the fruit of your beliefs.
 
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off topic. there's a thread specifically for this. post in it.
I have my own thread for this so no need for you to post in it since you reject God's promises on this topic

I hope you don't get anything medical science cannot handle because if you do you will die quickly and think God is doing it to you while the devil laughs at you for rejecting the promises of God. :eek:
 

posthuman

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I've already proven in this thread that you reject the clear reading of scripture on this topic.
nope, you just asserted it by personal fiat.

can you not have a discussion without assaulting my character?
perhaps the Lord will heal you of this.
 

posthuman

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I have my own thread for this so no need for you to post in it since you reject God's promises on this topic
you could have just as easily - nay, even more easily - replied to the thread i created specifically for you.

why didn't you?

do you get more fantasy points by creating your own narrative? :ROFL:
 
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nope, you just asserted it by personal fiat.

can you not have a discussion without assaulting my character?
perhaps the Lord will heal you of this.

He certainly healed me from listening to false teachers that reject His promises!

They are speaking in behalf of the devil who always opposes God's Word.



you could have just as easily replied to the thread i created specifically for you.

why didn't you?

I have my own thread for this so no need for you to post in it since you reject God's promises on this topic

Look, it's no problem for me if you decide to reject God's promises to be well and when you get sick you believe it's the Lord doing it to you.

You come WAY to late to convince me that God does not honor His promises
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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you will die quickly
that sounds great!

Ecclesiastes 7:1​
A good name better than precious ointment, and the day of death than the day of one's birth

"good health" is nothing more than the slowest possible rate of dying.
 

PaulThomson

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Oct 29, 2023
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This I find interesting. Some years back when I first heard that the New Testament was written without punctuation it got my mind going. So I dug in and it was in the 3rd century BC that the Greeks started punctuation believe first was the comma.

I theorize that the problem arose because as you conquered new peoples and pushed for assimilation by culture and language. There is gonna be some disconnect in the process. I have never had time to really research if that is the case or not. However, it was noticed that as Greek was being read aloud in forums and public gatherings. Some of the readers did not comprehend where to stop, place emphasis, and etc. So punctuation was born to let the reader know how and when to do so.

Also upon further reading of modern scholars. The majority found no problems with the punctuation. Mainly because Greek was still spoken as a first and primary language as late as I believe 400 AD. So they would have the knowledge and skillset. So I tend to at least at this time go with the majority that it is correct. Mainly because I have not found the time to really dig in further and research out all the history and data.

Which hoping at some point I get the time to because I have to admit that when I read every jot and title will be fulfilled. I take a broader reading for that to include punctuation as well. So interesting topic and since you believe there may be a problem with the punctuation of this verse would actually like to hear more on why you find that so or just your theory if that is what you have at present.
I believe the word as given was true. I believe any additions to the original texts are up for negotiation.

Another text where I disagree wqith the KJV punctuation is "I tell you today, you will be with me in Paradise." Rather than "I tell you, today you will be with me in paradise."
 

stilllearning

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Oct 4, 2021
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I believe the word as given was true. I believe any additions to the original texts are up for negotiation.

Another text where I disagree wqith the KJV punctuation is "I tell you today, you will be with me in Paradise." Rather than "I tell you, today you will be with me in paradise."
That one does seem to be the one I hear the most on the punctuation. I guess for me it has never bothered me nor the punctuation at all. As I always read Christ is speaking from the reality of where they are going and not where they are. As on the other side even though three days had passed on our side over there it was still today.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
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That one does seem to be the one I hear the most on the punctuation. I guess for me it has never bothered me nor the punctuation at all. As I always read Christ is speaking from the reality of where they are going and not where they are. As on the other side even though three days had passed on our side over there it was still today.
Another explanation for this is the rejection that paradise means heaven, which it clearly does not. And since Jesus did not ascend to heaven until after His resurrection three days later, this solves the problem of thinking He meant heaven "today" when He did not. Paradise was Abraham's bosom, the "side" of Sheol where the righteous went... Sheol being a general "holding place" for the dead, both righteous, and not.
 

PaulThomson

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Oct 29, 2023
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Another explanation for this is the rejection that paradise means heaven, which it clearly does not. And since Jesus did not ascend to heaven until after His resurrection three days later, this solves the problem of thinking He meant heaven "today" when He did not. Paradise was Abraham's bosom, the "side" of Sheol where the righteous went... Sheol being a general "holding place" for the dead, both righteous, and not.
It may be that Jesus was metaphorically sun-bathing in a deck chair in paradise drinking Iced tea with the penitent thief while he was waiting for His time to resurrect. However, it seems to me more likely from the messianic psalms like Ps.18, that He, as the world's sin bearing scapegoat, was being subjected to the demonic torments that a condemned sinner would be subject to, up until the time the Father and Holy Spirit reached down into hades and ripped His soul out of satan's clutches and put it back into the body in the tomb..
 
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until the time the Father and Holy Spirit reached down into hades and ripped His soul out of satan's clutches and put it back into the body in the tomb..
Jesus was never in the clutches of satan when He left His body and was down in hell.

1 Peter 3:18,19
For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:
By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison;


Jesus suffered on the Cross while He was still in His Body, after that we have no record in scripture of Jesus suffering torment at the hands of the devil after He left His Body.

Kenneth Copeland and a few other nuts falsely teach that Jesus was tormented by the devil in hell and Jesus became a sinner. That's all false doctrine.

Jesus was preaching to people in hell, we know it was to people since 1 Peter 3:20 tells us the spirits Jesus was preaching to were sometime disobedient - that could not be devils because they have continually been disobedient since they rebelled against God following satan's rebellion.



.... and therefore a true prophet of God

Except for the time he rebelled against the Lord and refused to obey the Lord.

After he quit the sinful behavior he did OK
 

stilllearning

Well-known member
Oct 4, 2021
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It may be that Jesus was metaphorically sun-bathing in a deck chair in paradise drinking Iced tea with the penitent thief while he was waiting for His time to resurrect. However, it seems to me more likely from the messianic psalms like Ps.18, that He, as the world's sin bearing scapegoat, was being subjected to the demonic torments that a condemned sinner would be subject to, up until the time the Father and Holy Spirit reached down into hades and ripped His soul out of satan's clutches and put it back into the body in the tomb..
Anytime I have heard this preached it ends with Christ became the very first to be born again. Is that how you read and understand this doctrine of him becoming sin itself then paying the price in hell?
 
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Anytime I have heard this preached it ends with Christ became the very first to be born again. Is that how you read and understand this doctrine of him becoming sin itself then paying the price in hell?

Jesus became a sin offering, He never became a sinner.

Jesus was the first born from the dead

Colossians 1:18
And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.


He was separated from God on the Cross in our behalf. We know this is true because Jesus said "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me" (Matthew 27:46) He was separated from God as a sin offering for our sin because the wages of sin is death which is separation from God (Romans 6:23)

Most people don't realize that the first man to get born again was Adam. Only, Adam got born again from life to death in that he was in union with God, he sinned, and became separated from God because of sin and died spiritually.

Jesus on the other hand never did any sin Himself, but he was made a sin offering for the sins of mankind and God forsook Him in our behalf - and then Jesus was raised from the dead and become the first man to be born again from death to life.

This why the Word of God says Jesus is the firstborn from the dead.
 

stilllearning

Well-known member
Oct 4, 2021
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Jesus became a sin offering, He never became a sinner.

Jesus was the first born from the dead

Colossians 1:18
And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.


He was separated from God on the Cross in our behalf. We know this is true because Jesus said "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me" (Matthew 27:46) He was separated from God as a sin offering for our sin because the wages of sin is death which is separation from God (Romans 6:23)

Most people don't realize that the first man to get born again was Adam. Only, Adam got born again from life to death in that he was in union with God, he sinned, and became separated from God because of sin and died spiritually.

Jesus on the other hand never did any sin Himself, but he was made a sin offering for the sins of mankind and God forsook Him in our behalf - and then Jesus was raised from the dead and become the first man to be born again from death to life.

This why the Word of God says Jesus is the firstborn from the dead.
Mine was a question to him about a doctrine known as Christ becoming sin. Reason I ask him is because we at present when time allows are also debating if Christ was preached as deity as part of salvation. So having heard the teaching of Christ became sin, I am aware of also a teaching that Christ had no idea he was the savior until he had opened up and preached Isaiah 61 and said today this is fulfilled.

So just trying to ascertain how one teaching he has heard has influenced the next. So I can be better equipped to answer on matters in debate at present and prior ones still ongoing. Seeing if one influences another or is no connection at all and independent of each other.
 
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Mine was a question to him about a doctrine known as Christ becoming sin. Reason I ask him is because we at present when time allows are also debating if Christ was preached as deity as part of salvation. So having heard the teaching of Christ became sin, I am aware of also a teaching that Christ had no idea he was the savior until he had opened up and preached Isaiah 61 and said today this is fulfilled.

So just trying to ascertain how one teaching he has heard has influenced the next. So I can be better equipped to answer on matters in debate at present and prior ones still ongoing. Seeing if one influences another or is no connection at all and independent of each other.

OK, carry on. :cool: