I think you meant prophecy for the common good. Tongues are a sign for the unbelievers (not for good) .
Please read I Corinthians 12 as well.
I Corinthians 12
7 To each is given the manifestation of the Spirit
for the common good. 8 For to one is given through the Spirit the utterance of wisdom, and to another the utterance of knowledge according to the same Spirit, 9 to another faith by the same Spirit, to another gifts of healing by the one Spirit, 10 to another the working of miracles, to another prophecy, to another the ability to distinguish between spirits,
to another various kinds of tongues, to another the interpretation of tongues. 11 All these are empowered by one and the same Spirit, who apportions to each one individually as he wills.(ESV)
I Corinthians 14
26 What then, brothers? When you come together, each one has a hymn, a lesson, a revelation, a tongue, or an interpretation. Let all things
be done for building up.
(ESV)
Bold emphasis mine.
You have yet to show where that law has been changed. Or are you saying it was just a good philosophical theory?
You are apparently reading ideas into the Bible that are not there. What I said is based on scripture. I quoted the scriptures that support what I am saying above. This scripture contradicts the idea that tongues are only given as a sign to unbelievers. Tongues are for a sign to unbelievers. But tongues are not only for a sign to unbelievers. You should not read 'only' into verses where it is not present.
I would think we work from that law rather than oppose it.
It would seem you are one of the ones spoken of in the previous verse (and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the LORD) it’s what the wherefore is therefore.. It even says it’s a law .
You are the one not accepting what other scriptures say, and reading ideas into verses that are not there.
Paul sometimes referred to the Old Testament scriptures as 'the law.'
In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the LORD.Wherefore tongues are for a sign,not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. 1Co 14:21
It would seem they a oppose each other?And yet you say we should seek after a sign.
You seem to be reading ideas into this verse. I say 'seem to' because your messages are a bit cryptic and quite honestly confusing because of grammar and usage. Tongues are for a sign to them that believe not. When a believer speaks in tongues and interprets it to edify the body, tongues is NOT a sign to him that 'and yet for all that, ye will not hear Me'. When the believer speaks in tongues, he edifies himself. When he interprets in the congregation, he edifies the congregation.
Tongues are a sign to unbelievers.
And if tongues are a sign for unbelievers, that does not mean that signs are only for unbelievers. That is in no way a logical conclusion to draw from the statement that says that 'tongues are a sign for them that believe not'. I showed you where Jesus gave His disciples a sign.
I just remembered this, Abraham received a sign.
Romans 4
11 He received the sign of circumcision as a seal of the righteousness that he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised. (ESV)
I realize that is a different type of sign, but you seem to be fine with treating all signs the same. The sign Abraham had was not for someone who believed not.
The Jews sought after a sign by a work
I'll stop you right there. I do not know what you are talking about or the point you are trying to make. Try arguing based on scripture and referring to some scripture that refers to what you are talking about.
they performed outwardly of the flesh hoping it was evidence they had the Holy Spirit.
What Jews did something to show they had the Holy Spirit? There are specific individuals in the Old Testament who had the Spirit of God on them. But other than that, can you show me any evidence that Jews...who were not followers of Jesus were concerned about having the Holy Spirit or showing evidence that they had the Holy Spirit? Can you show me any evidence that this has ever been an emphasis in Judaism from the first century to today?
I have no idea what you are talking about. It doesn't seem to fit with what I know of Judaism at all. I think you just totally make this stuff up or type whatever comes into your mind.
Some today use water baptism as evidence they have the Holy Spirit, or attending a church service as evidence they have the Holy Spirit, or drinking poison, or being slain in the spirit and falling backward, other might say because they read the word of God .The sky is the limit just believe in a work you can perform
If a believer has some evidence of the Holy Spirit in his life, that is a good thing. Fruits of the Spirit are a good thing. The I Corinthians 12 gifts are also called 'manifestations of the Spirit. How is having a gift of the Spirit a 'work'?
It is good if a Christian does good works. Even if one of those works demonstrates a manifestation of the Spirit, it is a good thing. Christians are supposed to do good works. The Bible presents good works in a good way. But salvation is not by works.
There is plenty of things a person can chose to work to do and call that evidence they have the Holy Spirit .I think it teaches just the opposite.. It’s all the same thing evidence by a work they perform in the flesh that they have no assurance they have the Holy Spirit, unless they perform something with their flesh, they will not believe..
I think you are probably judging a lot of people using this made-up philosophy of yours. There may be someone who will only believe God if he does a good work out there. But we see plenty of examples of people in the Bible who believed God and then did things like prophesy, perform miracles, etc. But I don't find any warnings in the Bible against people who did miracles or prophesied that they did miracles or prophesied because they trusted in their flesh. If your concern that people who do miracles, etc. must be doing so to prove something to themselves so they can believe God, why doesn't the Bible warn us about this?
Some unbelievers don't believe until they see a sign or miracle and hear the word of God. But they are unbelievers. They don't believe.
1Co 1:23 But we preach Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks foolishness;
By looking at the verse above seeking after sign (walking by sight) by what a person performs outwardly to prove they have the Spirit of Christ, to a Jew it rises above preaching the gospel , making the preaching to no effect.
You seem very confused. How do you deal with the fact that Jesus did miracles and performed signs and wonders. There were Jews who believed after they saw signs and wonders. Some did not. Your theory is not Biblical. "
Jesus wasn't walking by sight when he did miracles. The apostles walked by faith and did miracles.
Where to you find the idea that we are to seek after signs? Is there a commandment that says we must do a work outwardly to prove we have the Holy Spirit inwardly??
The manifestations of the Spirit occur because of God's grace. The idea of doing a work outwardly to prove we have the Holy Spirit inwardly seems to be your own personal obsession. That is not a theme I find in the Bible.
Seeking after signs? What do you mean by that? The apostles prayed for God to stretch out his hand and do signs and wonders. When Jesus sent the twelve out to preach he said, "Heal the sick. Cleanse the lepers.' That is not the same thing as demanding a sign from Jesus.
Healing and evangelizing are good things that God empowers believers to do. So we should have a positive attitude toward these things. We should not foolishly accuse those who do such things of only believing in God if the do a work or sign. Why attribute bad motives to someone just because they operate in a spiritual gift?
It fulfills the law of God found in the scriptures, destroying the preaching of the gospel.
Also, as a matter of logic, you should realize that if the evil and adulterous seek a sign, that does not mean that all who seek a sign are evil and adulterous.
You could apply the same logic to the death of Georege Washington.
'Those who fall 1000 feet from a helicopter without a parachute die. George Washington is dead. Therefore he must have fallen 1000 feet from a helicopter.'
'Tomatoes are red. You look red after you came back from the beach. Therefore, you are a tomato.'
This seems to be the logical error you are making, the logical error of affirming the consequent. The apostles asked Jesus for a sign and prayed for God to do signs and wonders. That doesn't mean they were evil or adulterous.
For after that in the wisdom of God the world by wisdom knew not God, it pleased God by the foolishness of preaching to save them that believe. For the Jews require a sign, and the Greeks seek after wisdom: 1Co 1:21
Both are stumbling blocks that make the preaching of gospel without effect. It would seem foolish to seek after one.
That's a foolish conclusion. Read Acts and look at the people who believed after seeing signs. A very clear example is the proconsul Sergius Paulus. Why did Jesus do miracles? Why did the apostles do miracles?
The type of sign Paul may be referring to here could be different, though, a predicted prophecy, the kind of sign a prophet might give to validate his authenticity. God occasionally gave signs through His messengers. An angel gave the shepherd the sign of a babe lying in swaddling clothes, lying in a manger. There is no reason to think that their seeing that sign led to them responding in unbelief.
1Co 1:23 But we preach Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks foolishness;
By looking at the verse above seeking after sign (walking by sight) by what a person performs outwardly to prove they have the Spirit of Christ, to a Jew it rises above preaching the gospel , making the preaching to no effect.
Stick with what the Bible teaches instead of arguing for your made-up theories. Your prejudice against miracles contradicts the narrative of the Gospels and Acts as well as the Old Testament.
Where to you find the idea that we are to seek after signs? Is there a commandment that says we must do a work outwardly to prove we have the Holy Spirit inwardly??
Everything, I read speaks against it.
You confuse and accuse. Why would you assume that someone who performs a sign is only doing so to prove that He has the Holy Spirit. Even if that were partly his motivation, would that be wrong? Elisha once said "he will know that there is a prophet in Israel."
The apostles prayed for God to stretch forth His hand to do signs and wonders. They wanted the unbelievers to believe. They already believed. I doubt they were doing it just so people would know they had the Holy Spirit in and with them, though that could have been a side effect.
Is the preaching of the gospel foolishness and all a person has to do is perform some sort of work?
What does your question have to do with the topic we are discussing?
Should Christians give to the poor? If you say 'yes' would I be justified in accusing you of only giving to the poor as evidence that God was real and that you are saved? No. that would be a foolish accusation. Why do you draw similar conclusions about the motivation of those who operate in gifts of the Spirit?
Joh 4:48 Then said Jesus unto him, Except ye see signs and wonders, ye will not believe.
Read on and you will see that Jesus healed the man's son. Jesus said that, and then He did signs and wonders, and people believed in Him.
