Why the king james?

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posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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Jesus is not God's only son, Israel was a son of God. Israel was God's firstborn son, Jesus was God's second born son. Jesus was the only begotten of the Father born from above but he was not his only son.

Exodus 4:22 KJV
And thou shalt say unto Pharaoh, Thus saith the Lord , Israel is my son, even my firstborn:

if you're going to go that route, then you might want to take a look at Jeremiah 31:9, and what God calls Ephraim.

not that i agree with you about this; just that you may as well go "all in"
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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It takes an act of God for them to be set free...same here I imagine
it always takes an act of God to be set free, IMHO.

all praise belongs to Jah, who has redeemed me and set me free!!!

\°/
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,085
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Do you have Scripture that you can trust 100%? What translation do you trust? How much do you trust it?

actually, you just keep your very own word and consider all who do not obey YOU as lost

same goes for chuck and the rest

it is just silly the way you all carry on and support each other in your misplaced trust in a version of the Bible that is not at all inspired
 
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John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,085
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The miraculous thing about the KJV is that it defines itself. The definitions in the Strong’s Concordance along with other corrupt lexicons are not needed and cannot be trusted. The King James Bible defines itself by scripture comparison and reading the context of a passage.

I am not following this entire thread.

Are you stating that Dr. Strong "picks the definition he wants" in his Concordance that many of us use for Bible study?
 
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PeacefulWarrior

Guest
The miraculous thing about the KJV is that it defines itself. The definitions in the Strong’s Concordance along with other corrupt lexicons are not needed and cannot be trusted. The King James Bible defines itself by scripture comparison and reading the context of a passage.
...sounds like circular reasoning (...defines itself).

How did the KJV come to exist?
What languages were translated into KJV?
Since KJV is in English, what about all the folks who do not understand English--are they damned until they learn a new language?

A group of men got together and created the KJV. What did they have available to them (tools, scriptures)? I understand the original texts were in Hebrew, Greek, and Aramaic. I understand it's very difficult to translate Hebrew into English with 100% accuracy. This is why lexicons and dictionaries are beneficial.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
The miraculous thing about the KJV is that it defines itself. The definitions in the Strong’s Concordance along with other corrupt lexicons are not needed and cannot be trusted. The King James Bible defines itself by scripture comparison and reading the context of a passage.

It can't.

The English language does not allow it to.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
...sounds like circular reasoning (...defines itself).

How did the KJV come to exist?
What languages were translated into KJV?
Since KJV is in English, what about all the folks who do not understand English--are they damned until they learn a new language?

A group of men got together and created the KJV. What did they have available to them (tools, scriptures)? I understand the original texts were in Hebrew, Greek, and Aramaic. I understand it's very difficult to translate Hebrew into English with 100% accuracy. This is why lexicons and dictionaries are beneficial.
Same with greek.

The greek has word tenses, and other language which can not be properly interpreted in a "word for word' interpretation.



ie, English has past (were) present (is) and future (will be)

Greek has aorist, perfect and other tenses, which can only be translated ito English using one of the three English tense words. Which would be a faulty translation and not fully true.
 
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ember

Guest
Do you have Scripture that you can trust 100%? What translation do you trust? How much do you trust it?

you know, at this point I want to call you a dingbat...so let's just ignore me

no one should trust a Bible 100%...the very fact that even you King Jamesies can't all agree is living proof of that

the Bible in any translation tells us that it is GOD who keeps us and in Whom we should place ALL our trust

even YOUR Bible says that

see, you are trusting a book..because that is all the Bible is without the Holy Spirit and apparently, He has not let you in on the secret, that the Word became flesh or this:

27My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me: 28And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any
man pluck them out of my hand. 29My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand. John 10 KJV


 
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Miri

Guest
This thread is so nonsensical.

Debating a handful of alphabet letters and words when God has provided the entire
bible for.... well see below. Do we not also have the help of the Holy Spirit.

There is nothing wrong with people preferring one version over another, I tend to
use various and like anyone else, tend to prefer some over others
depending on circumstances. If I am chatting to new Christians for example
i may use something which is easy to read for them. If I am doing a study
of my own I look at various versions.

To suggest only one version should ever be used and only one version is
inspired, just shows a lack of understanding, and also underestimates the
power of the Holy Spirit. Without the Holy Spirit, no version would be any
use to us.

To limit use to KJV only will be a stumbling block for many. Is that what you
want to happen, to prevent people coming to salvation cos it is insisted they
read a book with outdated language. If people understand the KJV and
like it etc that's fine, but to insist to people who may not understand it
or find it hard to follow, that it is the only version to read, is just not
right, it is placing a millstone around their neck.


2 Timothy 3:16-17 NKJV
[16] All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof,
for correction, for instruction in righteousness, [17] that the man of God may be complete,
thoroughly equipped for every good work.


2 Timothy 3:16-17 NLT
[16] All Scripture is inspired by God and is useful to teach us what is true and to make
us realize what is wrong in our lives. It corrects us when we are wrong and teaches us
to do what is right. [17] God uses it to prepare and equip his people to do every good work.


2 Timothy 3:16 AMP
[16] Every Scripture is God-breathed (given by His inspiration) and profitable for instruction,
for reproof and conviction of sin, for correction of error and discipline in obedience, and for
training in righteousness (in holy living, in conformity to God's will in thought, purpose, and
action),


KJV
16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof,
for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
17 That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.



If the translations didn't contradict each other then I would agree, but they don't. My bible is God breathed, he translated every word of it perfectly. I'm not interested in some bible translators interpretation, I want God's interpretation. What I can't figure out is why don't others feel the same way.
Ok let me help you try to figure it out, here are a few points.

The KJV is just one translation, there has been many before it and many after and
God willing if we don't all blow ourselves to smitherenes or Jesus returns, there will
be many more to follow. :) I wonder if when the KJV came out, people also had
the same debate saying the KJV was in error and a previous version was better etc.

The language is archiac, old, out dated, yes some can follow it - im one of them I was
brought up with the KJV. I even still remember various verse better in the KJV than
other version. But I would never insist that people must read the bible in old
language only.

Here is one reason why as an example. My elderly aunt is a Christian she is 80, she
easily gets confused, she finds it hard to follow complicated story lines on TV, or follow
news or other reading material, including the bible if they are not straight forward and
easy to take in. For her now the KJV is too complicated, she cannot get past all the
thees and thys to understand the passages. So I bought her an easy to read
translation in modern language which flows better. It is possible she may have early
stage vascular dementia. For someone in that position would you still recommend the
KJV?


Another example, I know a lady in our women's group who has learning difficulties. So
much so that she got breast cancer 18 months ago but did not tell anyone about the lump
or know how to deal with it. She did not tell anyone until it was very advanced. Praise God
though he has brought her though all that now. But this learning difficulty also makes it
hard for her to understand things unless they can be broken down in simple truths.
Would you tell her that she should only read the KJV.


Other instances where other versions are better. I have not done it for a while now but
on a few occasions I have set about the task of reading through the bible very quickly.
To refresh myself about the settings, the truths, the characters of the bible etc. It is not
intended to be an in depth bible study. But a quick read of the bible with the aim to read it
through within maybe 9-10 months or shorter if possible. When I have done this I have
used an easy to read version. Along the way I note down passages to go back and study
in depth later. Then during what I think of as a proper bible study, I use a few different
versions to better understand the passage.

In other words the bible is a tool, a resource, it isn't a golden calf. Just as a carpenter
uses different types of saws, screws, nails for different jobs. Different versions of the
bible assist different circumstances. If you still cannot figure this out I honestly don't
know any other way to explain it to you.

I do understand what you mean about disliking certain versions, there are ones I
chose not to use. But if a person is having a wonderful time of discovering God via
a particular version and they find it is helpful to them. Then I am not going to put
them off by saying "oh but that doesn't mean anything as its not the KJV" etc.

People usually learn and grow at their own pace and come to decide on their
own about which version they prefer. If it inspires them and draws then closer to
God, then it is doing what it was intended for.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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It is called context. We can not just pick any old definition. You are not being truthful.

No English version is completely accurate, because there is no English complete interpretation of the ancient texts in any bible. only word for word translations. and since many English words can not completely convey the greek or Hebrew meaning, all English texts are flawed.
Context is relative to the reader. You see the context as Nebuchadnezzar was a pagan therefor he said a son of the gods, you don't consider it even possible that God could have put any words in Nebuchanezzars mouth that he wanted. The point is, no one but God knows what came out of Nebuchadnezzar's mouth. Only God can translate Elahh from the original language to English because only God knows.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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you know, what you have said here reveals how weak your faith actually is

no man can destroy what God Himself raises up

on the other hand, no one can stand if God takes it down

you all don't understand what you are believing because you are believing what you have heard from someone who is just as misled as you are

the word of God does not change...however, that does not mean a version of the Bible

you seem to have forgotten the Holy Spirit and it also appears you have a relationship with a book...not the One that the book tells us about
You're right I shouldn't have said destroy, I should have said decieve. As far as the Holy Spirit goes, I haven't forgotten Him. It was the Holy Spirit that showed me the KJV was perfect. Did the Holy Spirit show you that it wasn't perfect?
 
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ember

Guest
Context is relative to the reader. You see the context as Nebuchadnezzar was a pagan therefor he said a son of the gods, you don't consider it even possible that God could have put any words in Nebuchanezzars mouth that he wanted. The point is, no one but God knows what came out of Nebuchadnezzar's mouth. Only God can translate Elahh from the original language to English because only God knows.

well if context is relevant to the reader, I guess the KJV means different things to different people

oh wait...it does! :p

your arguments are one step forward and two steps backwards

no one but God knows what came out of Nebuchadnezzar's mouth. Only God can translate Elahh from the original language to English because only God knows.
do you ever get into the NT?
 
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ember

Guest
You're right I shouldn't have said destroy, I should have said decieve. As far as the Holy Spirit goes, I haven't forgotten Him. It was the Holy Spirit that showed me the KJV was perfect. Did the Holy Spirit show you that it wasn't perfect?

The Holy Spirit has shown me only God is perfect

Everything on earth is going to burn one day including all the Bibles

Only God is eternal

Fear God...not a Bible...nor a human being

Saying with a loud voice, Fear God, and give glory to him; for the hour of his judgment is come: and worship him that made heaven, and earth, and the sea, and the fountains of waters. Rev. 14:7
 
Nov 23, 2013
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that's ridiculous

you may be uncertain of what you believe and perhaps maybe even Whom you believe, but a Christian knows Christ and that Christian believes Christ and knows He is THE ONLY BEGOTTEN SON OF GOD

wake up there!

Israel did not die for the sins of the world

you honestly do not seem to even know what you say you believe
Then why doesn't every bible say he's the only begotten? And yes you're right Israel did not die for the sins of the world and I never said they did. Israel is the firstborn... the firstborn that should have inheritted the world but lost the inheritance because of sin. That's why Christ the second born is now the rightful heir. Now those of us firstborn who have been born again (second born) can be joint heirs with Christ the second born son of God.
 
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ember

Guest
you would think so Grace, but apparently not LOL! thanks :rolleyes:

I have that verse framed ..so it was easy to source
 
Nov 23, 2013
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What's the verse in question, anyway?
I'm seeing reference to "Son of God" vs "Son of gods" ...
Daniel 3:25King James Version (KJV)

25 He answered and said, Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the form of the fourth is like the Son of God.


Daniel 3:25New International Version (NIV)

25 He said, “Look! I see four men walking around in the fire, unbound and unharmed, and the fourth looks like a son of the gods.”
 
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ember

Guest
Then why doesn't every bible say he's the only begotten? And yes you're right Israel did not die for the sins of the world and I never said they did. Israel is the firstborn... the firstborn that should have inheritted the world but lost the inheritance because of sin. That's why Christ the second born is now the rightful heir. Now those of us firstborn who have been born again (second born) can be joint heirs with Christ the second born son of God.
swiss cheese

the moon is made from swiss cheese

take heed...I may actually be saying your posts are full of holes...like swiss chees...only not as tasty :eek:
 
Nov 23, 2013
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I am not following this entire thread.

Are you stating that Dr. Strong "picks the definition he wants" in his Concordance that many of us use for Bible study?
No I'm saying that just like in English, Hebrew and Greek words have multiple meanings i.e. ʼĕlâhh, el-aw'; (Aramaic) corresponding to H433; God:—God, god. The word can mean God or god. Strong doesn't know what Nebuchadnezzar said neither does anyone else know, only God knows. It's not up to us to determine if it should be God or god because we don't know.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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No, he is saying that God somehow neglected to correctly pass on all the many the renderings of Scripture written long before the KJV was ever even proposed. Supposedly, He waited all those centuries to finally give the group of men King James hired the proper interpretation.
I don't believe that. I believe God gave his word to all people in their own languages.